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A man has joy in an apt answer, and how delightful is a timely word!
Proverbs 15:23 |
If you have a question you’d like Keith to answer, please submit it using the form at the bottom of this page. Keith will respond to you personally, and may include your question and his answer here. To view the answers to the following questions, click on the word “Question”. Salvation If Jesus is the only way to heaven, then what will happen to the people in foreign countries who havent heard of Him? How will God judge them? God judges us according to our knowledge. Jesus acknowledged there would be many who wouldnt hear of Him when He said, This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all the nations, and then the end will come (Matt 24:14).
What about those who havent heard? Romans 1:19-20 says, That which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse. This means that everyone has some knowledge of God, which is revealed through creation. If you look at a skyscraper you know that an architect designed it and someone built it, even though you werent there to see it constructed. The complexity of the world reveals a divine intelligence and Creator behind it.
Romans 2:14-15 gives us some more insight: God places a conscience within everyone to know right from wrong. For when Gentiles (pagans) who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them. This means that God will judge those who havent heard according to how they followed their consciences.
Jesus died for [the sins] of the whole world (1 John 2:2). He then commissioned His disciples to preach this good news to the entire world. Until that goal is accomplished, God will deal with those who havent heard about Jesus according to their hearts. In every nation the man who fears Him and does what is right is welcome to Him (Acts 10:35). God will judge those who havent heard according to how they followed the revelation that was given to them.
The real question is: What about those who have heard about Jesus? You must either accept or reject Him.
How could a non-Jew have been saved before Christ's death? Gentiles were saved the very same way that Jews were saved in the Old Testament: by faith! (Gen 15:6). Contrary to some, throughout time, faith has been the only means of salvation for both Jew and Gentile. The only variable in this sole condition has been progressive revelation. In the Old Testament, it remains uncertain exactly how much of the Gospel each individual convert understood. I suspect Old Testament saints knew more rather than less. Regardless, at the minimum, each individual (both Jew & Gentile) had a trust in the Lord...and likely in His promised Seed (although they didnt know His name was Jesus; He was called man of promise, star, rock, etc.).
Just for your consideration, here are some Old Testament Gentiles who were saved in a New Testament sense: Melchizedek (Gen 14), Jethro (Exod 18), Balaam (Num 22), Rahab (Josh 2; Heb 11; Jas 2), Ruth (Ruth 2), and Naaman (2 Kings 5). Gods Great Commission dates back to the book of Genesis and it has always included Gentiles. By the way, we can also see this theme throughout the Gospels as well. It is the faith of the Gentiles that is especially commended by Jesus (e.g., Matt 8:5-13; Luke 7:1-10; Matt 15:21-28; Mark 7:24-30).
Biblical Tensions How can I overcome my lack of assurance and struggle over the issue of election? First of all, I want you to have every confidence that you ARE a child of God. The Apostle John writes, But as many as received Him [Jesus], to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name (John 1:12). This verse, along with over 150 others, teaches belief as the sole condition for salvation. Therefore, since you have believed in Jesus and his work on the cross, you can be fully assured that you will spend eternity with Him (e.g. Luke 10:20; John 13:10; Rom 8:31-39; 2 Pet 1:1; 1 John 2:12-14, 25; 5:13). Second, your eternal Father will NEVER reject you. The Bible assures us through multiple promises that Gods love for us is unconditional and eternal. Just reflect on the following verses: In these five passages, Gods Word teaches us several important truths: (1) If we have believed in Jesus, we have eternal life and nothing or no one can snatch us out of Jesus hand or Gods hand. (2) Jesus will not cast out any believer because it is Gods express will that He not lose one single believer. (3) There is nothing in this entire world that can separate us from Gods love. (4) Even if we deny Christ or are unfaithful to Him, God will still love us and remain faithful to us. Third, Gods love for you is GREAT! David writes, The LORD is merciful and gracious, slow to anger, and abounding in mercy. He will not always strive with us, nor will He keep His anger forever. He has not dealt with us according to our sins, nor punished us according to our iniquities. For as the heavens are high above the earth, so great is His mercy toward those who fear Him; as far as the east is from the west, so far has He removed our transgressions from us. As a father pities his children, so the LORD pities those who fear Him for He knows our frame; He remembers that we are dust (Ps 103:8-14). God has a heart of compassion for us that is incomprehensible. Where our earthly fathers have failed, God has succeeded. Gods love for us makes that of the best earthly father seem like hate (Luke 11:13; Eph 3:18-20). Fourth, Gods great love for you led Him to FORE-LOVE you. Paul writes, For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the firstborn among many brethren (Rom 8:29-30). The Bible teaches the profound truth that God foreknew you. The word foreknow means to love beforehand. For reasons known only to the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, God chose you (and many others) to believe in Christ. Romans 9:6-23 teaches that God chose us regardless of our own merit. He did this so that no one could ever boast and salvation might be to the praise of His glory (Eph 1:3-14). Please notice the verse that follows Romans 8:29: Moreover whom He predestined, these He also called; whom He called, these He also justified; and whom He justified, these He also glorified. Romans 8:30 shares a concept that has been called The Unbreakable Chain. In this verse, all four verbs are accomplished facts (see the past tense endings). Therefore, as far as God is concerned, we are already glorified. This insight should comfort our souls and bring great confidence to our Christian lives. Fifth, the goal of election is to GLORIFY. The doctrine of election ensures that man cannot boast in his/her salvation. If salvation is wholly Gods sovereign work, man is the beneficiary, not the cause. This means that no person has been or ever will be saved as a result of sincerity, desire, or righteousness. God chooses individuals and sovereignly calls them to Himself. It is then mans responsibility to merely believe. It is only through simple belief so that salvation cannot be considered a work (Rom 4:5). If baptism, church membership, public confession, or any other work were necessary, salvation would not be by faith alone. Therefore, man could contribute something to the salvation process. Yet, the Scriptures make it clear that salvation is by Gods grace through faith (e.g. Luke 18:13-14; John 3:16; Rom 4:5; Eph 2:8-9; Titus 3:5). Sixth, the purpose of election is to COMFORT believers. Jane, in your email you shared that you are constantly thinking and worrying about election. You also mentioned that you have a hard time accepting that God loves you and would choose you. Although I can empathize with your thoughts and feelings, I can confidently say that God never intended for you to wrestle with this issue. I will go so far as to say that God does not want you to worry about election. Rather, if you have placed your faith in Christ, you are elect. The simple truth is, biblical writers use the doctrine of election as a way to comfort believers who are being persecuted and experiencing other trials (e.g. 1 Pet 1:2). The story is told of man who had always wrestled with the concept of election. As he walked through the pearly gates of heaven, he noticed a banner above his head that read, Whosoever will may come (Rev 22:17). After walking past the banner, the man turned back only to notice the words on the other side, which read, chosen before the foundation of the world (Eph 1:4). Finally, there are many difficult passages in the Scriptures. I will be the first to acknowledge this truth. Thats why I have so diligently studied these difficult passages (2 Tim 2:15). You referred to Matthew 7:21. Indeed, that is a verse that is frequently used to strike fear in the assurance of many legitimate believers. Here is my quick response: We must note that Jesus is NOT talking about believers. The context makes this clear. Jesus is speaking about false prophets (see verse 15ff). These false prophets are not believers; they are unbelievers who do religious works. Yet, as we have already seen, works have nothing to do with salvation. The only work that we are responsible for as it pertains to salvation is simple belief. When asked the question, What shall we do, that we may work the works of God? Jesus said, This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He sent (John 6:28-29). The reason that these false prophets will not be admitted into heaven is because they trusted in their works and not in Jesus. Did God divide Himself when Jesus came to earth? If not, then how can God forsake Himself on the cross? God did NOT divide Himself when Jesus came to earth. During Jesus earthly ministry, He continually acknowledged that He and the Father were one (e.g., John 17:11, 21). If this was not the case, God is not God. I say this because if the Trinity (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit) failed to be one for even a nanosecond, God is not eternal. If God is not eternal, He is not God. Yet, the explicit testimony of Scripture is that God is eternal (e.g., Isa 9:6; 1 Tim 1:17).
So what happened on the cross? God forsook Jesus (Matt 27:46; Mark 15:34). The question is, to what degree? First, it is important to note that this is the only time Jesus does not address God as Father. In His first utterance from the cross, Jesus said, Father, forgive them; for they do not know what they are doing (Luke 23:34). In the seventh and last utterance He said, Father, into Your hands I commit My spirit (23:46). So in the opening and closing words it was Father, but in the central utterance, the fourth, it was My God, My God.
It will help to consider the usage of the terms in Jesus language elsewhere when He speaks to God. Jesus speaks of God as Father in the Gospels about 170 times. New Testament scholar S. Lewis Johnson has noted, Palestinian Judaism was very reluctant to speak of God as Father in the time of our Lord. In fact, no one has produced to date a single instance in which God is addressed as my Father by an individual person. Jesus, however, spoke of God as My Father. He used the words almost unanimously in His prayersto be exact, twenty-one times. There is only one instance in which Jesus addressed a prayer to God and failed to use the term My Father. That occasion, of course, is the fourth utterance from the cross. Why? There can be only one explanation: He regarded His relationship to God at this precise moment as being a judicial one, not a paternal one. In other words, He saw Himself primarily as a man before God, not as the eternal Son before His Father.
Second, it must not be overlooked that Jesus addressed His God as My God, My God (italics mine). It was a cry of distress but not of distrust. Christ was speaking from the viewpoint of His human nature in His prophetic cry, addressing His Father as His God, but the pronoun my seems to refer to both natures or His whole person. Christ was being judicially forsaken because He was bearing the sin of the world. It was not simply the divine nature forsaking the human nature as some have held.
God abandoned Jesus in the judicial sense that He focused His wrath on the Son (cf. Mark 14:36). Jesus bore Gods curse and His judgment for sin (cf. Deut 21:22-23; Isa 53:5-6; 2 Cor 5:21; Gal 3:13). God, who cannot look on sin (Hab 1:13), turned His back, so to speak, on Jesus who bore that sin in His own body on the cross. Jesus experienced separation from God when He took the place of sinners and bore the guilt of the worlds sins (Mark 10:45; Rom 5:8; 1 Pet 2:24; 3:18). Even though the physical sufferings that Jesus experienced were great, the spiritual agony that He underwent as the Lamb of God taking away the sins of the world was infinitely greater.
Finally, Jesus quoted Psalm 22:1. That is why He expressed His agony of separation as a question. Jesus was not asking God for an answer. As Jesus used this verse, it expressed an affirmation of His relationship to God and an acknowledgment that God had abandoned Him.
Summary: Because God is holy (Ps 22:3) He cannot overlook sin. On the contrary, He must punish it. The Lord Jesus had no sin of His own, but He took the sins of the world upon Himself. Paul writes, He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him (2 Cor 5:21). When God looked down and saw our sins upon the sinless substitute, He withdrew from Christ. It was this separation that Jesus sensed and was the most agonizing element of the cross. God had to disassociate Himself from Jesus because He bore the full weight of the sins of the world.
Since God (through Jesus) created everything, (Col 1:16, John 1:3); did He create sin (Rom 5:12-13)? Some people try to blame everything on God. We frequently hear or read the following questions: Why did God allow all this evil to come into the world? How can a loving God be over a world that is so filled with trouble and evil and sorrow? Yet, we must ask the following questions: (1) Did God commit the first sin? (2) Is God to blame for the first sin? (3) Did sin originate with the Creator or with a creature?
First, God did not commit the first sin. Many people will quickly state that Adam did; yet this is only partially correct. The origin of sin took place even before Adam and Eve were created (Gen 1:26-27). In fact, the conception of sin likely took place prior to the creation of the heavens and earth (Gen 1:1). Even before Adam sinned there was already a sinful creature in the garden of Eden. Although he took the form of a serpent (Gen 3:1; Rev 12:9), he was created as the most beautiful of Gods angels (Ezek 28:12). Lucifer (bright one, shining one) or the Morning Star, as he was once called is the one who was the first sinner. Adam committed the first human sin; however, Satan (our adversary) committed the first historical sin.
Second, God is not to blame for the first sin. The Bible teaches, For the LORD is good; His lovingkindness is everlasting and His faithfulness to all generations (Ps 100:5). The apostle John writes, God is Light, and in Him there is no darkness at all (1 John 1:5b). Again, he proclaims, You know that He appeared in order to take away sins; and in Him there is no sin (1 John 3:5). God is perfect in His holiness (Isa 6:1-8). Originally, every creature that God made was holy and good and sinless (Gen 1:31a). Not one sinful, wicked creature was ever made by God. Yet, the Scriptures tell us that it is mysteriously possible for a holy and good creature to turn away from God and fall into sin.
Finally, God did not create sin (Jas 1:13-14) but He did create individuals with the capacity to sin. As a result, God also holds man responsible for his own sin. Adam freely chose, and was not forced externally by God, to fall into sin. On the other hand, we cannot deny that God is the first cause of everything (Acts 17:28). God certainly created Adam with the realization that he would sin.
The Bible teaches two fundamental truths: God is absolutely sovereign; He is absolutely good. His sovereignty and his goodness cannot be compartmentalized; He is fully sovereign in His goodness and fully good in His sovereignty. Yet, at the same time, God decrees things that He does not desire and desires things that He does not decree. This is not a contradiction; it is only an apparent contradiction. We must affirm what Scripture affirms. And when it gets beyond our comprehension, we must still affirm it. This is what we call faith (Heb 11:1, 6).
Although the Westminster Confession is not Scripture, I like what it says on this topic: God from all eternity did, by the most wise and holy counsel of his own will, freely and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass: yet so, as thereby neither is God the author of sin, nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures, nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established. This simply means that even evil serves Gods ultimate good purpose for humanity. As Paul writes in Romans 8:28, And we know that God causes everything to work together for the good of those who love God and are called according to his purpose for them.
How were people saved in the Old Testament? In Romans 3:24-26, Paul writes, ...being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus; whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed; for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, so that He would be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
The key is Romans 3:25: in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed. The sins of the past were committed but were not counted against mankind because as far as the Father, Son, and Spirit were concerned, the cross was an event in the past. (The Trinity is not bound by space and time.) I would go so far as to say the Trinity ordained the cross. Jesus death was predestined. Luke records in Acts 4:27-28, For truly in this city there were gathered together against Your holy servant Jesus, whom You anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel, to do whatever Your hand and Your purpose predestined to occur. God was behind all of this.
In an ultimate sense, the Father was responsible for the cross. Isaiah prophesies, Surely He has borne our griefs and carried our sorrows; yet we esteemed Him stricken, smitten by God, and afflicted. But He was wounded for our transgressions; He was crushed for our iniquities; upon Him was the chastisement that brought us peace, and with His stripes we are healedYet it was the will of the LORD to crush Him; He has put Him to grief; when His soul makes an offering for sin, He shall see His offspring; he shall prolong His days; the will of the LORD shall prosper in His hand (Isa 53:4-5, 10).
God passed over the sins of the Old Testament saints. The sacrifices were never intended as a means of salvation but as a picture of the salvation that was to come in Jesus. The Trinity viewed the cross as a past event, therefore the cross has always been the means by which all people have been saved and will be saved.
Did God create evil? Proverbs 16:4 says, The LORD has made everything for its own purpose, even the wicked for the day of evil. God did NOT create evil. Proverbs 16:1-3 deals with God's sovereignty. Human beings may propose various plans, but God disposes. If ones way is committed to the Lord, ones plans are confirmed. Verse 4 is a line of poetry that affirms this truth and then expands it with a specific application about the wicked. The verb translated has made (pa`al) means to work out, bring about, accomplish. It is naturally used of Gods sovereign control of life. The point is, God ensures that everyones actions and their consequences correspond. In Gods order there is just retribution for every act, for He alone is completely sovereign.
This is a theme throughout the book of Proverbs. Even what is ordinarily thought of as an act of occurrence of chance, such as the casting of lots, is represented as the Lords doing (Prov 16:33). Nothing can deter or frustrate the accomplishment of Gods purpose. Proverbs 19:21 says, Many plans are in a mans heart, but the counsel of the LORD will stand. Proverbs 21:30 says, There is no wisdom and no understanding and no counsel against the LORD. The horse is prepared for the day of battle, but victory belongs to the LORD. Summary: God has from all eternity had an inclusive plan encompassing the seemingly major and minor details of life.
In Psalm 103:3, it says, who forgives all your sins and heals all your diseases. I can see where someone can look at this verse and say, Well, since He does not heal all diseases, then does that mean that He does not forgive all sin? If He does not he Here is a very short and sweet response. The Psalmist simply says that GOD heals all our sicknesses. Notice the emphasis is not on all, it is on GOD. David is saying that every time we are healed, it is THE LORD who always does the healing work. The same is true with regards to our sins. As a result, we should do what David does, Bless the Lord (Ps 103:2). It is also worth noting that many Psalms have a view of what is to come: the eternal realm when death and disease will be no more.
This verse is inappropriately used to insist that every believer will be healed. If a believer is not healed, it is not Gods fault but the believers fault (i.e., lack of faith). This is unbiblical as well because Paul had a physical thorn in the flesh and God said, MY grace is sufficient for you, for my power is perfected in weakness (2 Cor 12:9). Sadly, this verse is used by Christian Scientists and others to disregard all medicine and medical attention. Of course, they suggest that this is useless and unnecessary because God heals all our diseases. Yet, elsewhere in the Scriptures, medicine is commended (2 Chron 16:12).
After Judas' death was Matthias or Paul intended to be the twelfth apostle? Matthias was the right choice. The apostles spent significant time in prayer and then God sovereignly orchestrated the drawing of straws to select His man (see Prov 16:33).
Paul could not have filled the twelfth spot because he didn't meet the qualifications laid out in Acts 1:21-22: "Therefore it is necessary that of the men who have accompanied us all the time that the Lord Jesus went in and out among us--beginning with the baptism of John until the day that He was taken up from us--one of these must become a witness with us of His resurrection."
Paul himself made it clear that he was NOT to be classified with the Twelve (1 Cor 15:8; Gal 1:15-24), and the Twelve knew it. They all realized that it was necessary that 12 men witness at Pentecost to the twelve tribes of Israel, and also that 12 men be prepared to sit on the 12 thrones to judge the 12 tribes (Luke 22:28-30). The Twelve were commissioned to preach to Israel while Paul was a missionary to the Gentiles (Gal 2:9). It is also worth noting that Luke the writer of Acts was Pauls friend, yet he acknowledged the Twelve as an official group (Acts 2:14; 6:2).
Spiritual Disciplines My spouse has stopped spending time in the Word or prayer. What should I do? First set an example in the spiritual disciplines (Acts 6:4; 1 Cor 4:16; 2 Tim 2:15).
Second, recognize that things may not change overnight. It may take time. Be patient (Eccl 7:8). As Paul says, walk in a manner worthy of the calling with which you have been called, with all humility and gentleness, with patience, showing tolerance for one another in love (Eph 4:1a-2).
Third, bank on the power of prayer (Eph 6:18). Hudson Taylor once said, It is possible to move men, through God, by prayer alone. If you believe this, I would begin an all-out prayer assault. I would suggest that you daily pray at least one of these passages for your spouse. Remember these words spoken by David: Moreover, as for me, far be it from me that I should sin against the LORD by ceasing to pray for you; but I will instruct you in the good and right way (2 Sam 12:23). This should further motivate you to pray for your spouse.
1) May __________ return to his/her first love (Rev 2:4).
2) May __________ never be lagging behind in diligence, but may he/she be fervent in spirit, serving the Lord (Rom 12:11).
3) May __________ follow the LORD his/her God and fear Him; and keep His commandments, listen to His voice, serve Him, and cling to Him (Deut 13:4).
4) As __________ has received Christ Jesus the Lord, so may he/she walk in Him, having been firmly rooted and now being built up in Him and established in his/her faith, just as he/she was instructed, and overflowing with gratitude (Col 2:6-7).
5) Let the peace of Christ rule in __________ heart, to which indeed he/she was called in one body; and be thankful. Let the word of Christ richly dwell within him/her, with all wisdom teaching and admonishing one another with psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with thankfulness in his/her heart to God (Col 3:15-16).
6) May __________ rejoice always; pray without ceasing; in everything give thanks; for this is Gods will for him/her in Christ Jesus (1 Thess 5:16-18).
7) Lord Jesus would You raise up a worker/friend (Matt 9:38) to influence __________ spiritually. May this person come alongside __________ and encourage him/her.
Jesus Christ Is Jesus omnipresent? Since Jesus is God; He must be omnipresent (Ps 139:7-12; Jer 23:23-24). However, Jesus primary place is at the right hand of God the Father, interceding for the saints (Rom 8:34; Heb 1:3,13; 8:1; 10:12; 12:2; 13:10). Interestingly, in giving the Great Commission, Jesus commanded His disciples to go as witnesses everywhere, even to the end of the earth, and He would be with them to the end of the age (Matt 28:19-20; Acts 1:8). This indicates that Jesus is not bound by space or time and when disciples are being made He is apparently present in a special way. Can you explain the differences in the accounts of Jesus baptism? (See Matt 3:16; Mark 1:10; Luke 3:22; John 1:32-33) The idea may be that some physical manifestation was given and the descent was like a dove landing. The imagery of a dove is fitting, as Scripture refers to the innocence and peacefulness of doves (Ps 68:13; Song of Sol 6:9; Matt 10:16). These characteristics mark the Holy Spirit. Scripture also establishes doves as appropriate sacrifices for guilt offerings if one could not afford a lamb (Lev 5:7), and for this reason doves were sold in the temple for sacrifices (Matt 21:12; John 2:14). An offering of a pair of doves was presented in behalf of Mary and Jesus (Luke 2:24), according to the Law (Lev 12:8).
Whatever else the descent of the Spirit on Jesus meant, it clearly indicates His anointing and empowerment for ministry. Jesus Himself proclaimed this anointing in the synagogue in Nazareth (Luke 4:18; cf. Isa 61:1) when He said, The Spirit of the Lord is upon Me.
Do you think Jesus was born out of wedlock since the marriage between Joseph and Mary was not consummated until after Jesus was born? I do not believe that Jesus was born out of wedlock. Although Joseph and Mary were not officially married, they were betrothed. Jesus was born in a Jewish context where full betrothal was so binding that its breaking required a certificate of divorce, and the death of one party made the other a widow or widower. This is the reason the word divorce is used in Matt 1:19 (NIV, ESV, NET) when Joseph considered calling the relationship off so that Mary would not be disgraced. Even though Joseph and Mary had yet to consummate their marriage, divorce would have been necessary because betrothal was a covenant made one year before the consummation of the marriage. Put simply, betrothal was considered the equivalent to marriage.
How could Jesus be "made sin" when He Himself was sinless (2 Corinthians 5:21)? 2 Corinthians 5:21 states, "God made Jesus who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." Yet other verses tell us that Jesus was "without sin" (Hebrews 4:15; 1 Peter 3:18). How do we reconcile such verses?
Jesus Christ as God is immutable (Malachi 3:6; Hebrews 13:8), and cannot change in His divine nature. In Hebrews 1:12 the Father says of Jesus, ?But You are the same, and Your years will not come to an end.?
Regarding Jesus being ?made to be sin,? Jesus was always without sin actually, but He was made to be sin for us judicially. That is, by His death on the cross, He paid the penalty for our sins and thereby canceled the debt of sin against us. So, while Jesus never committed a sin personally, He was made to be sin for us substitutionally.
One must also keep in mind the Old Testament backdrop of the concept of substitution. The sacrificial victim had to be ?without defect? (Leviticus 4:3, 23, 32). A hand would be laid on the unblemished sacrificial animal as a way of symbolizing a transfer of guilt (4:4, 24, 33). The sacrificial animal did not thereby actually become sinful by nature; rather, sin was imputed to the animal and the animal acted as a sacrificial substitute. In like manner, Christ the Lamb of God was utterly unblemished (1 Peter 1:19), but our sin was imputed to Him and He was our sacrificial substitute on the cross. Simply because our sin was imputed to Him does not mean He changed in nature. Christ was not sinful personally; He was made to be sin substitutionally.
Assurance If God forgives our sins, then why will our sins be remembered at the judgment? Its critical to understand that the judgment of believers by Christ is a judgment of our works, not our sins. In 1 Cor 3:13, Paul says of each believer, His work will be shown for what it is (NIV) and Gods judgment fire will test the quality of each mans work. The Bible is clear that our sins are totally forgiven when we believe in Christ, and we stand justified (declared not guilty) in Him. Theres no condemnation for the Christian (Rom 8:1). Nevertheless, our laying up of precious stones on the foundation of Christ can apparently be replaced or prevented by sins weve committed as well as by righteous acts weve failed to do. Therefore, a believers sins contribute directly to his being able to suffer loss (1 Cor 3:15). Through this loss of reward the believer is considered to be receiving his due for his bad works (2 Cor 5:10). This is not a punishment for sins, but the withholding of rewards for works not done, that should have been.
The bad that Paul refers to in 2 Cor 5:10 most likely includes sin and unfaithfulness. Paul uses the Greek word phaulos, which refers to evil when it is contrasted with good (John 3:20; 5:29; Rom 9:11; Titus 2:8; Jas 3:16). However, this has absolutely no bearing on our salvation; rather, it relates to our service. The only way that Christ will be able to judge our stewardship is by taking into account our faithfulness or lack thereof (Luke 19:11-27). So, while the sins that you and I have committed will never come up as they pertain to our salvation, they will likely be included in the equation of our stewardship.
How can I overcome my lack of assurance and struggle over the issue of election? First of all, I want you to have every confidence that you ARE a child of God. The Apostle John writes, But as many as received Him [Jesus], to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name (John 1:12). This verse, along with over 150 others, teaches belief as the sole condition for salvation. Therefore, since you have believed in Jesus and his work on the cross, you can be fully assured that you will spend eternity with Him (e.g. Luke 10:20; John 13:10; Rom 8:31-39; 2 Pet 1:1; 1 John 2:12-14, 25; 5:13).
Second, your eternal Father will NEVER reject you. The Bible assures us through multiple promises that Gods love for us is unconditional and eternal. Just reflect on the following verses:
Mark 7:10 says, HONOR YOUR FATHER AND YOUR MOTHER; and HE WHO SPEAKS EVIL OF HIS FATHER OR MOTHER, IS TO BE PUT TO DEATH. Does this verse threaten a believer's assurance? In 7:10, Jesus quoted the fifth of the Ten Commandments (see Exod 20:12; cf. Deut 5:16). Honoring ones parents was (and is) very important to God. It was so important in the Old Testament that God demanded the death penalty for a child who cursed his parents (see Exod 21:17; cf. Lev 20:9). The phrase PUT TO DEATH is a reference to physical death, not spiritual death. Jesus is not speaking of a heaven or hell issue. Salvation is a free gift that is solely by grace (Eph 2:8-9). No act of disobedience will send a person to hell, with the exception of refusing to believe the gospel (John 3:36).
In 7:11, Jesus explains that the Pharisees had a little religious trick to get around the fifth commandment. It was possible to pronounce the word Corban over some of their property. (Corban refers to something that has been set aside as a gift to be given to God at some later date, but which is still in the possession of the owner, see Louw & Nida 53.22.)
To make the statement that something was Corban was to take a vow regarding the object(s) in question; a vow that could not easily be canceled (see Deut 23:21-23; Num 30:1-16). It meant that the property was now specially dedicated to God. Yet, it was not necessarily ever actually given to God. The declaration stopped ones parents from using the property (or possession) to meet their needs (Mark 7:12-13). But its original owner could use it. This was a very clever way of being religious, yet neglecting needy parents and disregarding the fifth commandment. The Jewish leaders were doing the very same thing they accused Jesus of doing, only it was a worse crime because they were nullifying, not the traditions of the elders, but Gods Word.
Ethics In Matthew 5:42 Jesus says, Give to him who asks of you, and do not turn away from him who wants to borrow from you. Does this literally mean to give to everyone who asks? What about panhandlers? In Matthew 5:38-42, Jesus gives four illustrations that serve as contrasts with the Mosaic law. In each of these principles, Jesus goes above and beyond the law. Yet, it is easy to read these verses in a literalistic sense that is not in keeping with the whole of Scripture. Jesus is simply saying that in our personal relationships we must shun any spirit of retaliation. Or as D.A. Carson writes, What Jesus is saying in these verses, more than anything else is that His followers have no rights. They do not have the right to retaliate and wreck their vengeance (5:39), they do not have the right to their possessions (5:40), nor to their time and money (5:41-42).
Matthew 5:42 has to do with the law of lending. Deuteronomy 15:7-11 indicates that debts were canceled every seven years. The borrowers loved it; the lenders werent so enthusiastic. As a lender, the closer the seventh year got, the more tightfisted businessmen became. But Jesus said they were not to allow the seventh year to govern them. Whenever a brother had a need, they were to give generously.
Jesus wasnt talking about every panhandler who sticks his hand out, and He certainly wasnt talking about lending money for business ventures. They didnt do that type of thing in the ancient world, as is practiced today. He was talking about people in need. Our only consideration should be whether we can help. If so, we are to give generously, without thought of repayment. This is in keeping with Jesus words in Matthew 5:16, Let your light shine before men in such a way that they may see your good works, and glorify your Father who is in heaven.
Will a cloned person be outside of Gods creation? Will he/she have a soul and spirit? Although I know very little about this subject and am certainly not an expert, I believe that a cloned person will be outside of Gods creation and will not have a soul or spirit.
David writes, For You formed my inward parts; You wove me in my mother's womb. I will give thanks to You, for I am fearfully and wonderfully made; Wonderful are Your works, And my soul knows it very well. My frame was not hidden from You, When I was made in secret, And skillfully wrought in the depths of the earth; Your eyes have seen my unformed substance; And in Your book were all written The days that were ordained for me, When as yet there was not one of them (Psalm 139:13-16).
This verses seem to insist that God has His natural way of making people. He designs us, makes a plan for us, and then knits us together in the womb of our mother. Cloning seems to take God out of the loop. It seems a clone would be made apart from God.
The Psalmist writes in Psalm 71:6, "By You I have been sustained from my birth; You are He who took me from my mother's womb; My praise is continually of You." This verse states that God brings us forth from the womb. It is certainly stated that God has His hand directly in natural births. However, it implies that He does not have a hand in unnatural births, such as cloning. To cut God out of the process like that is obviously wrong. It short-circuits His original plan.
As you probably know, along with the biblical issues I've raised, there are also great fears and unknowns related to cloning. This should be cause for alarm.
An interesting side note is found in the following passages.
Genesis 21:1-2 Then the LORD took note of Sarah as He had said, and the LORD did for Sarah as He had promised. So Sarah conceived and bore a son to Abraham in his old age, at the appointed time of which God had spoken to him.
Genesis 29:31-33 Now the LORD saw that Leah was unloved, and He opened her womb, but Rachel was barren. Now the LORD saw that Leah was unloved, and He opened her womb, but Rachel was barren. Leah conceived and bore a son and named him Reuben, for she said, "Because the LORD has seen my affliction; surely now my husband will love me." Then she conceived again and bore a son and said, "Because the LORD has heard that I am unloved, He has therefore given me this son also." So she named him Simeon.
Ruth 4:13b And the LORD enabled her to conceive, and she gave birth to a son.
These verses can be used to argue either side in the cloning debate. They speak of how God chooses whether or not a woman may have children (opening or closing her womb). Some people say that with cloning, say, to provide a biological child to an infertile couple, we are going against Gods decision to make them infertile. On the other hand, if God can make a woman barren to keep her from having children, He can just as easily make cloning research fruitless to keep scientists from letting that woman conceive.
I would agree with the final statement. God can put a stop to the cloning research. Whether or not He will choose to do so is an entirely different matter. I submit myself to the truths found in Isaiah 55:8-9 where the Lord says, For My thoughts are not your thoughts, Nor are your ways My ways, declares the LORD. 9 For as the heavens are higher than the earth, So are My ways higher than your ways And My thoughts than your thoughts.
Prayer How do you interpret Matt 18:19? There are many times that an entire church prays for something in common and their prayers aren't answered. The answer to your question is to see the difficult verse (Matt 18:19) in its larger context. In Matt 18:15-17, Jesus deals with the subject of church discipline. Therefore, the promise of 18:19 refers to executing judgment on a brother who sins (18:15). You may also want to note that Matthew 18:20 (For where two or three have gathered together in My name, I am there in their midst) is frequently applied to contexts of small-group prayer gatherings. Yet, the context makes it clear that a church discipline process is what is under consideration (18:19). The two or three witnesses are those who accompany the Christian who confronts his brother (cf. 18:16). Of course, we could say that a general principle is still in tact in Matthew 18:19, because there are other New Testament passages that make similar statements:
If God is sovereign and if He loves to answer His children's prayers, is it really necessary to persist in prayer? God loves it when His children persevere in prayer. I only have to think of George Muller praying some sixty-odd years for a particular person to be converted. The person then trusted in Christ at Muellers funeral! I believe God often answers persistent prayer but it can take an awfully long time. Nevertheless, persistent prayer honors God and keeps us completely dependent upon Him. For example, my mom has suffered with severe migraine headaches on a daily or every other day basis for 21 years! Yet, even today, I continue to pray for her, knowing that the Lord may choose to heal her.
Here are some Scriptures for you to read that may encourage you. Obviously, there are many more and not all of these are perfectly suited to your circumstance. Nevertheless, they are all powerful and it does a soul good to see them all grouped together and read them in a time of need. Its also rather motivational.
Why pray for the lost if God determines who will believe anyway? There are several reasons to pray for lost people. First, the Bible urges us to pray for the lost. Paul writes, First of all, then, I urge that entreaties and prayers, petitions and thanksgivings, be made on behalf of all men, for kings and all who are in authority, so that we may lead a tranquil and quiet life in all godliness and dignity. This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth (1 Tim 2:1-4). This passage points to the priority of prayer for the lost when it says first of all. It also demonstrates that God desires believers to be involved in praying for all men to be saved. This is consistent with other Scriptures. God takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather delights when sinners turn from their evil ways (Ezek 33:11). He has commanded all men to repent (Acts 17:30) and His Gospel is to be preached to every one in the world (Matt 28:19-20; Mark 16:15; Luke 24:46-47). Therefore, we must pray that every man and every woman responds to the good news since salvation is offered to all (1 Tim 4:10; Titus 2:11; 1 John 4:14; Rev 22:17). Moreover, John wrote, This is the confidence which we have before Him, that, if we ask anything according to His will, He hears us. And if we know that He hears us in whatever we ask, we know that we have the requests which we have asked from Him (1 John 5:14-15).
Second, Jesus commands us to pray for the lost. Jesus said, Pray, then, in this way: Our Father who is in heaven, Hallowed be Your name. Your kingdom come. Your will be done, on earth as it is in heaven (Matt 6:9-10; cf. Luke 11:2). These parallel verses allude to Gods call to intercede for the lost. In the midst of Christs command to pray in this way we are told to pray for both His present and future reign in peoples lives (i.e., Your kingdom come). One application of this call is to pray for Christ to bring about the conversion of lost people. When one prays for the will of God and the kingdom of God, he is in essence praying for the same thing. He is praying for Jesus to rule in the hearts of men and women.
Third, Jesus modeled prayer for the lost. Jesus knew who His elect were, yet He prayed nonetheless that they would believe (John 17:20). We dont know who the elect are so we should be motivated by Jesus to nonetheless pray that the lost would be found.
Fourth, Paul modeled praying for the lost. Paul writes, Brethren, my hearts desire and my prayer to God for them is for their salvation (Rom 10:1). Here, Pauls desire for the lost to be saved is coupled with prayer for the same. Further evidence that Pauls heartfelt desire was for the lost to be saved can also be seen in Romans 9:1-3: I am telling the truth in Christ, I am not lying, my conscience testifies with me in the Holy Spirit, that I have great sorrow and unceasing grief in my heart. For I could wish that I myself were accursed, separated from Christ for the sake of my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh. Paul had a personal burden for lost people and so must we.
Biblical Interpretation What was the time frame from the book of Deuteronomy to the book of Isaiah? The book of Deuteronomy was written at the end of the 40 years in the wilderness (approx. 1405 B.C.) when the new generation of Israelites were on the verge of entering Canaan. Moses wrote this book to encourage the people to believe and obey God in order to receive God's blessings. The book of Isaiah was written sometime between 740-680 B.C. Isaiah announced judgment upon immoral and idolatrous Judah, the neighboring nations, and ultimately the whole world. In John 2:11, why does the NASB use the word believe and the NIV use the word faith? Is there a difference? The word that is translated "believed" (NASB) is a form of the Greek verb pisteuo. This Greek verb is most frequently rendered "believe." Yet, the verb and noun form (pisteuo and pistis) can also be rendered "trust," "entrust," "faith," etc. In John 2:11, the most popular English versions translate this word "believed" (e.g., NASB, NET, ESV, NRSV, KJV, NKJV, NLT). The NIV is the exception. Yet, their translation "put their faith in Him" is synonymous with the rendering "believed." Both translations are permissible and there is no notable difference between the two.
When I am studying a passage using laymans Greek (Strongs) I have come to a number of passages, where a plural is used, and if the word was not plural it could mean something different. Strongs makes no distinction if the word is plural or not. Is ther Yes, there are plural nouns and verbs in Greek. While Strongs doesn't necessarily recognize this fact, most English translators attempt to maintain the singular and plural distinctions of the Greek text so you should be able to recognize this in most English translations. While I believe Hebrew and Greek can be overrated, I do believe that it is usually important to note singular and plural references. Fortunately, as I've indicated most of these can be picked up by a simple reading of a more literal English translation (e.g., NASB, ESV, NET, and NKJV).
Re: 1 Cor 12:31, the noun charisma is charismata, which is an accusative neuter plural noun. All of the English translations I looked at reflect this fact. Therefore, it is best to understand charismata ("gifts") as encompassing multiple gifts. The "greater gifts" would then be referring to prophesying and possibly teaching (see 1 Cor 14:19) versus the more miraculous gifts (e.g., speaking in tongues and working miracles). In this context, Paul encouraged the Corinthians to desire the "greater" gift of prophesying (1 Cor 14:1, 5, 39a) over the miraculous. Note: the word "gifts" in 1 Cor 14:1 is not in the Greek text, but rather is supplied by most English translations. This is not necessary since the emphasis seems to be on prophesying.
I see the bridge in this passage as the phrase "a still more excellent way" (1 Cor 12:31b). This is Paul's segue to love (1 Cor 13), which is the oil that causes all the gears to work properly.
I was reading Genesis and came across 1:26, which says, "Then God said 'Let us make man in our own image.'" The pronoun "us" throws me. The Bible teaches that each member of the Godhead was involved in creation (see Gen 1:26; John 1:1-3; Col 1:16-17; Heb 1:1-2). The plural pronoun us in Gen 1:26 is a reference to the plurality of God, hence a hint of the Trinity (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit). How should we interpret Jesus words in Matthew 24:34: Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place? This is one of the hardest verses in the gospels to interpret. Various views exist for what generation means.
(1) Some take it as meaning, race and thus as an assurance that the Jewish race (nation) will not pass away. But it is very questionable that the Greek term genea can have this meaning. Two other options are possible.
(2) Generation might mean this type of generation and refer to the generation of wicked humanity. Then the point is that humanity will not perish, because God will redeem it.
(3) Generation may refer to the generation that sees the signs of the end (Matt 24:30), who will also see the end itself. In other words, once the movement to the return of Christ starts, all the events connected with it happen very quickly, in rapid succession. I opt for this view. In Hebrews 2:5-8, I dont understand what clues there are that imply these verses are referring to man and not Jesus? How do I know that 2:5 is referring to man because the whole world is subject under Jesus but evidently this is referring to man when i The answer is found in how one interprets the Hebrew writers use of Psalm 8:4-6 the Old Testament passage that is quoted in Hebrews 2:6-8a. Due to some technical grammatical issues, scholars disagree over whether these verses are specifically referring to Jesus or mankind.
Beginning in Heb 2:5, the word "for" alludes to the content of Heb 1:5-14. In this previous section, the subject matter is how the Son (Jesus) is superior to the angels. The Greek word oikoumene that renders the phrase "the world to come" is used to describe the world of people and their civilizations. It means the coming inhabited earth. Thus, the Hebrew writer is speaking of the future rule of the Son and His companions (Heb 1:9) on the earth (i.e., the millennial kingdom). The point of this verse is that angels will not rule in the age to come. Rather, believers will judge angels (1 Cor 6:3).
Hebrews 2:6-8 is a quotation of Psalm 8:4-6: "What is man, that you remember him, or the son of man, that you are concerned about him? You have made him for a little while lower than the angels; you have crowned him with glory and honor, and have appointed him over the works of your hands. You have put all things in subjection under his feet." This is where the real difficult lies. The phrase "son of man" can be understood as a reference to Jesus (Dan 7:13-14; Matt 16:13) or mankind in general (Num 23:19). It seems best in this context to understand it as referring to mankind in general. Another debatable issue is the word translated the "angels." In the Greek Old Testament, the word aggelous is usually understood to refer to a supernatural messenger, although it can refer to a human messenger. However, in the Hebrew Old Testament, the word used in Psalm 8:6 is elohim, a word that means "God" or "gods." While elohim often refers to the one true God, it can also refer to the members of the heavenly assembly (Ps 82:1, 6). While some understand this as a reference to God alone, the allusion to Gen 1:26-27 suggests a broader referent, including God and angels (cf. |
