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A man has joy in an apt answer, and how delightful is a timely word!
Proverbs 15:23 |
If you have a question you’d like Keith to answer, please submit it using the form at the bottom of this page. Keith will respond to you personally, and may include your question and his answer here. To view the answers to the following questions, click on the word “Question”. Salvation If Jesus is the only way to heaven, then what will happen to the people in foreign countries who havent heard of Him? How will God judge them? God judges us according to our knowledge. Jesus acknowledged there would be many who wouldnt hear of Him when He said, This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all the nations, and then the end will come (Matt 24:14).
What about those who havent heard? Romans 1:19-20 says, That which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse. This means that everyone has some knowledge of God, which is revealed through creation. If you look at a skyscraper you know that an architect designed it and someone built it, even though you werent there to see it constructed. The complexity of the world reveals a divine intelligence and Creator behind it.
Romans 2:14-15 gives us some more insight: God places a conscience within everyone to know right from wrong. For when Gentiles (pagans) who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them. This means that God will judge those who havent heard according to how they followed their consciences.
Jesus died for [the sins] of the whole world (1 John 2:2). He then commissioned His disciples to preach this good news to the entire world. Until that goal is accomplished, God will deal with those who havent heard about Jesus according to their hearts. In every nation the man who fears Him and does what is right is welcome to Him (Acts 10:35). God will judge those who havent heard according to how they followed the revelation that was given to them.
The real question is: What about those who have heard about Jesus? You must either accept or reject Him.
How could a non-Jew have been saved before Christ's death? Gentiles were saved the very same way that Jews were saved in the Old Testament: by faith! (Gen 15:6). Contrary to some, throughout time, faith has been the only means of salvation for both Jew and Gentile. The only variable in this sole condition has been progressive revelation. In the Old Testament, it remains uncertain exactly how much of the Gospel each individual convert understood. I suspect Old Testament saints knew more rather than less. Regardless, at the minimum, each individual (both Jew & Gentile) had a trust in the Lord...and likely in His promised Seed (although they didnt know His name was Jesus; He was called man of promise, star, rock, etc.).
Just for your consideration, here are some Old Testament Gentiles who were saved in a New Testament sense: Melchizedek (Gen 14), Jethro (Exod 18), Balaam (Num 22), Rahab (Josh 2; Heb 11; Jas 2), Ruth (Ruth 2), and Naaman (2 Kings 5). Gods Great Commission dates back to the book of Genesis and it has always included Gentiles. By the way, we can also see this theme throughout the Gospels as well. It is the faith of the Gentiles that is especially commended by Jesus (e.g., Matt 8:5-13; Luke 7:1-10; Matt 15:21-28; Mark 7:24-30).
Biblical Tensions How can I overcome my lack of assurance and struggle over the issue of election? First of all, I want you to have every confidence that you ARE a child of God. The Apostle John writes, But as many as received Him [Jesus], to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name (John 1:12). This verse, along with over 150 others, teaches belief as the sole condition for salvation. Therefore, since you have believed in Jesus and his work on the cross, you can be fully assured that you will spend eternity with Him (e.g. Luke 10:20; John 13:10; Rom 8:31-39; 2 Pet 1:1; 1 John 2:12-14, 25; 5:13). Second, your eternal Father will NEVER reject you. The Bible assures us through multiple promises that Gods love for us is unconditional and eternal. Just reflect on the following verses: In these five passages, Gods Word teaches us several important truths: (1) If we have believed in Jesus, we have eternal life and nothing or no one can snatch us out of Jesus hand or Gods hand. (2) Jesus will not cast out any believer because it is Gods express will that He not lose one single believer. (3) There is nothing in this entire world that can separate us from Gods love. (4) Even if we deny Christ or are unfaithful to Him, God will still love us and remain faithful to us. Third, Gods love for you is GREAT! David writes, The LORD is merciful and gracious, slow to anger, and abounding in mercy. He will not always strive with us, nor will He keep His anger forever. He has not dealt with us according to our sins, nor punished us according to our iniquities. For as the heavens are high above the earth, so great is His mercy toward those who fear Him; as far as the east is from the west, so far has He removed our transgressions from us. As a father pities his children, so the LORD pities those who fear Him for He knows our frame; He remembers that we are dust (Ps 103:8-14). God has a heart of compassion for us that is incomprehensible. Where our earthly fathers have failed, God has succeeded. Gods love for us makes that of the best earthly father seem like hate (Luke 11:13; Eph 3:18-20). Fourth, Gods great love for you led Him to FORE-LOVE you. Paul writes, For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the firstborn among many brethren (Rom 8:29-30). The Bible teaches the profound truth that God foreknew you. The word foreknow means to love beforehand. For reasons known only to the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, God chose you (and many others) to believe in Christ. Romans 9:6-23 teaches that God chose us regardless of our own merit. He did this so that no one could ever boast and salvation might be to the praise of His glory (Eph 1:3-14). Please notice the verse that follows Romans 8:29: Moreover whom He predestined, these He also called; whom He called, these He also justified; and whom He justified, these He also glorified. Romans 8:30 shares a concept that has been called The Unbreakable Chain. In this verse, all four verbs are accomplished facts (see the past tense endings). Therefore, as far as God is concerned, we are already glorified. This insight should comfort our souls and bring great confidence to our Christian lives. Fifth, the goal of election is to GLORIFY. The doctrine of election ensures that man cannot boast in his/her salvation. If salvation is wholly Gods sovereign work, man is the beneficiary, not the cause. This means that no person has been or ever will be saved as a result of sincerity, desire, or righteousness. God chooses individuals and sovereignly calls them to Himself. It is then mans responsibility to merely believe. It is only through simple belief so that salvation cannot be considered a work (Rom 4:5). If baptism, church membership, public confession, or any other work were necessary, salvation would not be by faith alone. Therefore, man could contribute something to the salvation process. Yet, the Scriptures make it clear that salvation is by Gods grace through faith (e.g. Luke 18:13-14; John 3:16; Rom 4:5; Eph 2:8-9; Titus 3:5). Sixth, the purpose of election is to COMFORT believers. Jane, in your email you shared that you are constantly thinking and worrying about election. You also mentioned that you have a hard time accepting that God loves you and would choose you. Although I can empathize with your thoughts and feelings, I can confidently say that God never intended for you to wrestle with this issue. I will go so far as to say that God does not want you to worry about election. Rather, if you have placed your faith in Christ, you are elect. The simple truth is, biblical writers use the doctrine of election as a way to comfort believers who are being persecuted and experiencing other trials (e.g. 1 Pet 1:2). The story is told of man who had always wrestled with the concept of election. As he walked through the pearly gates of heaven, he noticed a banner above his head that read, Whosoever will may come (Rev 22:17). After walking past the banner, the man turned back only to notice the words on the other side, which read, chosen before the foundation of the world (Eph 1:4). Finally, there are many difficult passages in the Scriptures. I will be the first to acknowledge this truth. Thats why I have so diligently studied these difficult passages (2 Tim 2:15). You referred to Matthew 7:21. Indeed, that is a verse that is frequently used to strike fear in the assurance of many legitimate believers. Here is my quick response: We must note that Jesus is NOT talking about believers. The context makes this clear. Jesus is speaking about false prophets (see verse 15ff). These false prophets are not believers; they are unbelievers who do religious works. Yet, as we have already seen, works have nothing to do with salvation. The only work that we are responsible for as it pertains to salvation is simple belief. When asked the question, What shall we do, that we may work the works of God? Jesus said, This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He sent (John 6:28-29). The reason that these false prophets will not be admitted into heaven is because they trusted in their works and not in Jesus. Did God divide Himself when Jesus came to earth? If not, then how can God forsake Himself on the cross? God did NOT divide Himself when Jesus came to earth. During Jesus earthly ministry, He continually acknowledged that He and the Father were one (e.g., John 17:11, 21). If this was not the case, God is not God. I say this because if the Trinity (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit) failed to be one for even a nanosecond, God is not eternal. If God is not eternal, He is not God. Yet, the explicit testimony of Scripture is that God is eternal (e.g., Isa 9:6; 1 Tim 1:17).
So what happened on the cross? God forsook Jesus (Matt 27:46; Mark 15:34). The question is, to what degree? First, it is important to note that this is the only time Jesus does not address God as Father. In His first utterance from the cross, Jesus said, Father, forgive them; for they do not know what they are doing (Luke 23:34). In the seventh and last utterance He said, Father, into Your hands I commit My spirit (23:46). So in the opening and closing words it was Father, but in the central utterance, the fourth, it was My God, My God.
It will help to consider the usage of the terms in Jesus language elsewhere when He speaks to God. Jesus speaks of God as Father in the Gospels about 170 times. New Testament scholar S. Lewis Johnson has noted, Palestinian Judaism was very reluctant to speak of God as Father in the time of our Lord. In fact, no one has produced to date a single instance in which God is addressed as my Father by an individual person. Jesus, however, spoke of God as My Father. He used the words almost unanimously in His prayersto be exact, twenty-one times. There is only one instance in which Jesus addressed a prayer to God and failed to use the term My Father. That occasion, of course, is the fourth utterance from the cross. Why? There can be only one explanation: He regarded His relationship to God at this precise moment as being a judicial one, not a paternal one. In other words, He saw Himself primarily as a man before God, not as the eternal Son before His Father.
Second, it must not be overlooked that Jesus addressed His God as My God, My God (italics mine). It was a cry of distress but not of distrust. Christ was speaking from the viewpoint of His human nature in His prophetic cry, addressing His Father as His God, but the pronoun my seems to refer to both natures or His whole person. Christ was being judicially forsaken because He was bearing the sin of the world. It was not simply the divine nature forsaking the human nature as some have held.
God abandoned Jesus in the judicial sense that He focused His wrath on the Son (cf. Mark 14:36). Jesus bore Gods curse and His judgment for sin (cf. Deut 21:22-23; Isa 53:5-6; 2 Cor 5:21; Gal 3:13). God, who cannot look on sin (Hab 1:13), turned His back, so to speak, on Jesus who bore that sin in His own body on the cross. Jesus experienced separation from God when He took the place of sinners and bore the guilt of the worlds sins (Mark 10:45; Rom 5:8; 1 Pet 2:24; 3:18). Even though the physical sufferings that Jesus experienced were great, the spiritual agony that He underwent as the Lamb of God taking away the sins of the world was infinitely greater.
Finally, Jesus quoted Psalm 22:1. That is why He expressed His agony of separation as a question. Jesus was not asking God for an answer. As Jesus used this verse, it expressed an affirmation of His relationship to God and an acknowledgment that God had abandoned Him.
Summary: Because God is holy (Ps 22:3) He cannot overlook sin. On the contrary, He must punish it. The Lord Jesus had no sin of His own, but He took the sins of the world upon Himself. Paul writes, He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him (2 Cor 5:21). When God looked down and saw our sins upon the sinless substitute, He withdrew from Christ. It was this separation that Jesus sensed and was the most agonizing element of the cross. God had to disassociate Himself from Jesus because He bore the full weight of the sins of the world.
Since God (through Jesus) created everything, (Col 1:16, John 1:3); did He create sin (Rom 5:12-13)? Some people try to blame everything on God. We frequently hear or read the following questions: Why did God allow all this evil to come into the world? How can a loving God be over a world that is so filled with trouble and evil and sorrow? Yet, we must ask the following questions: (1) Did God commit the first sin? (2) Is God to blame for the first sin? (3) Did sin originate with the Creator or with a creature?
First, God did not commit the first sin. Many people will quickly state that Adam did; yet this is only partially correct. The origin of sin took place even before Adam and Eve were created (Gen 1:26-27). In fact, the conception of sin likely took place prior to the creation of the heavens and earth (Gen 1:1). Even before Adam sinned there was already a sinful creature in the garden of Eden. Although he took the form of a serpent (Gen 3:1; Rev 12:9), he was created as the most beautiful of Gods angels (Ezek 28:12). Lucifer (bright one, shining one) or the Morning Star, as he was once called is the one who was the first sinner. Adam committed the first human sin; however, Satan (our adversary) committed the first historical sin.
Second, God is not to blame for the first sin. The Bible teaches, For the LORD is good; His lovingkindness is everlasting and His faithfulness to all generations (Ps 100:5). The apostle John writes, God is Light, and in Him there is no darkness at all (1 John 1:5b). Again, he proclaims, You know that He appeared in order to take away sins; and in Him there is no sin (1 John 3:5). God is perfect in His holiness (Isa 6:1-8). Originally, every creature that God made was holy and good and sinless (Gen 1:31a). Not one sinful, wicked creature was ever made by God. Yet, the Scriptures tell us that it is mysteriously possible for a holy and good creature to turn away from God and fall into sin.
Finally, God did not create sin (Jas 1:13-14) but He did create individuals with the capacity to sin. As a result, God also holds man responsible for his own sin. Adam freely chose, and was not forced externally by God, to fall into sin. On the other hand, we cannot deny that God is the first cause of everything (Acts 17:28). God certainly created Adam with the realization that he would sin.
The Bible teaches two fundamental truths: God is absolutely sovereign; He is absolutely good. His sovereignty and his goodness cannot be compartmentalized; He is fully sovereign in His goodness and fully good in His sovereignty. Yet, at the same time, God decrees things that He does not desire and desires things that He does not decree. This is not a contradiction; it is only an apparent contradiction. We must affirm what Scripture affirms. And when it gets beyond our comprehension, we must still affirm it. This is what we call faith (Heb 11:1, 6).
Although the Westminster Confession is not Scripture, I like what it says on this topic: God from all eternity did, by the most wise and holy counsel of his own will, freely and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass: yet so, as thereby neither is God the author of sin, nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures, nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established. This simply means that even evil serves Gods ultimate good purpose for humanity. As Paul writes in Romans 8:28, And we know that God causes everything to work together for the good of those who love God and are called according to his purpose for them.
How were people saved in the Old Testament? In Romans 3:24-26, Paul writes, ...being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus; whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith. This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed; for the demonstration, I say, of His righteousness at the present time, so that He would be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
The key is Romans 3:25: in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed. The sins of the past were committed but were not counted against mankind because as far as the Father, Son, and Spirit were concerned, the cross was an event in the past. (The Trinity is not bound by space and time.) I would go so far as to say the Trinity ordained the cross. Jesus death was predestined. Luke records in Acts 4:27-28, For truly in this city there were gathered together against Your holy servant Jesus, whom You anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel, to do whatever Your hand and Your purpose predestined to occur. God was behind all of this.
In an ultimate sense, the Father was responsible for the cross. Isaiah prophesies, Surely He has borne our griefs and carried our sorrows; yet we esteemed Him stricken, smitten by God, and afflicted. But He was wounded for our transgressions; He was crushed for our iniquities; upon Him was the chastisement that brought us peace, and with His stripes we are healedYet it was the will of the LORD to crush Him; He has put Him to grief; when His soul makes an offering for sin, He shall see His offspring; he shall prolong His days; the will of the LORD shall prosper in His hand (Isa 53:4-5, 10).
God passed over the sins of the Old Testament saints. The sacrifices were never intended as a means of salvation but as a picture of the salvation that was to come in Jesus. The Trinity viewed the cross as a past event, therefore the cross has always been the means by which all people have been saved and will be saved.
Did God create evil? Proverbs 16:4 says, The LORD has made everything for its own purpose, even the wicked for the day of evil. God did NOT create evil. Proverbs 16:1-3 deals with God's sovereignty. Human beings may propose various plans, but God disposes. If ones way is committed to the Lord, ones plans are confirmed. Verse 4 is a line of poetry that affirms this truth and then expands it with a specific application about the wicked. The verb translated has made (pa`al) means to work out, bring about, accomplish. It is naturally used of Gods sovereign control of life. The point is, God ensures that everyones actions and their consequences correspond. In Gods order there is just retribution for every act, for He alone is completely sovereign.
This is a theme throughout the book of Proverbs. Even what is ordinarily thought of as an act of occurrence of chance, such as the casting of lots, is represented as the Lords doing (Prov 16:33). Nothing can deter or frustrate the accomplishment of Gods purpose. Proverbs 19:21 says, Many plans are in a mans heart, but the counsel of the LORD will stand. Proverbs 21:30 says, There is no wisdom and no understanding and no counsel against the LORD. The horse is prepared for the day of battle, but victory belongs to the LORD. Summary: God has from all eternity had an inclusive plan encompassing the seemingly major and minor details of life.
In Psalm 103:3, it says, who forgives all your sins and heals all your diseases. I can see where someone can look at this verse and say, Well, since He does not heal all diseases, then does that mean that He does not forgive all sin? If He does not he Here is a very short and sweet response. The Psalmist simply says that GOD heals all our sicknesses. Notice the emphasis is not on all, it is on GOD. David is saying that every time we are healed, it is THE LORD who always does the healing work. The same is true with regards to our sins. As a result, we should do what David does, Bless the Lord (Ps 103:2). It is also worth noting that many Psalms have a view of what is to come: the eternal realm when death and disease will be no more.
This verse is inappropriately used to insist that every believer will be healed. If a believer is not healed, it is not Gods fault but the believers fault (i.e., lack of faith). This is unbiblical as well because Paul had a physical thorn in the flesh and God said, MY grace is sufficient for you, for my power is perfected in weakness (2 Cor 12:9). Sadly, this verse is used by Christian Scientists and others to disregard all medicine and medical attention. Of course, they suggest that this is useless and unnecessary because God heals all our diseases. Yet, elsewhere in the Scriptures, medicine is commended (2 Chron 16:12).
After Judas' death was Matthias or Paul intended to be the twelfth apostle? Matthias was the right choice. The apostles spent significant time in prayer and then God sovereignly orchestrated the drawing of straws to select His man (see Prov 16:33).
Paul could not have filled the twelfth spot because he didn't meet the qualifications laid out in Acts 1:21-22: "Therefore it is necessary that of the men who have accompanied us all the time that the Lord Jesus went in and out among us--beginning with the baptism of John until the day that He was taken up from us--one of these must become a witness with us of His resurrection."
Paul himself made it clear that he was NOT to be classified with the Twelve (1 Cor 15:8; Gal 1:15-24), and the Twelve knew it. They all realized that it was necessary that 12 men witness at Pentecost to the twelve tribes of Israel, and also that 12 men be prepared to sit on the 12 thrones to judge the 12 tribes (Luke 22:28-30). The Twelve were commissioned to preach to Israel while Paul was a missionary to the Gentiles (Gal 2:9). It is also worth noting that Luke the writer of Acts was Pauls friend, yet he acknowledged the Twelve as an official group (Acts 2:14; 6:2).
Spiritual Disciplines My spouse has stopped spending time in the Word or prayer. What should I do? First set an example in the spiritual disciplines (Acts 6:4; 1 Cor 4:16; 2 Tim 2:15).
Second, recognize that things may not change overnight. It may take time. Be patient (Eccl 7:8). As Paul says, walk in a manner worthy of the calling with which you have been called, with all humility and gentleness, with patience, showing tolerance for one another in love (Eph 4:1a-2).
Third, bank on the power of prayer (Eph 6:18). Hudson Taylor once said, It is possible to move men, through God, by prayer alone. If you believe this, I would begin an all-out prayer assault. I would suggest that you daily pray at least one of these passages for your spouse. Remember these words spoken by David: Moreover, as for me, far be it from me that I should sin against the LORD by ceasing to pray for you; but I will instruct you in the good and right way (2 Sam 12:23). This should further motivate you to pray for your spouse.
1) May __________ return to his/her first love (Rev 2:4).
2) May __________ never be lagging behind in diligence, but may he/she be fervent in spirit, serving the Lord (Rom 12:11).
3) May __________ follow the LORD his/her God and fear Him; and keep His commandments, listen to His voice, serve Him, and cling to Him (Deut 13:4).
4) As __________ has received Christ Jesus the Lord, so may he/she walk in Him, having been firmly rooted and now being built up in Him and established in his/her faith, just as he/she was instructed, and overflowing with gratitude (Col 2:6-7).
5) Let the peace of Christ rule in __________ heart, to which indeed he/she was called in one body; and be thankful. Let the word of Christ richly dwell within him/her, with all wisdom teaching and admonishing one another with psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with thankfulness in his/her heart to God (Col 3:15-16).
6) May __________ rejoice always; pray without ceasing; in everything give thanks; for this is Gods will for him/her in Christ Jesus (1 Thess 5:16-18).
7) Lord Jesus would You raise up a worker/friend (Matt 9:38) to influence __________ spiritually. May this person come alongside __________ and encourage him/her.
Jesus Christ Is Jesus omnipresent? Since Jesus is God; He must be omnipresent (Ps 139:7-12; Jer 23:23-24). However, Jesus primary place is at the right hand of God the Father, interceding for the saints (Rom 8:34; Heb 1:3,13; 8:1; 10:12; 12:2; 13:10). Interestingly, in giving the Great Commission, Jesus commanded His disciples to go as witnesses everywhere, even to the end of the earth, and He would be with them to the end of the age (Matt 28:19-20; Acts 1:8). This indicates that Jesus is not bound by space or time and when disciples are being made He is apparently present in a special way. Can you explain the differences in the accounts of Jesus baptism? (See Matt 3:16; Mark 1:10; Luke 3:22; John 1:32-33) The idea may be that some physical manifestation was given and the descent was like a dove landing. The imagery of a dove is fitting, as Scripture refers to the innocence and peacefulness of doves (Ps 68:13; Song of Sol 6:9; Matt 10:16). These characteristics mark the Holy Spirit. Scripture also establishes doves as appropriate sacrifices for guilt offerings if one could not afford a lamb (Lev 5:7), and for this reason doves were sold in the temple for sacrifices (Matt 21:12; John 2:14). An offering of a pair of doves was presented in behalf of Mary and Jesus (Luke 2:24), according to the Law (Lev 12:8).
Whatever else the descent of the Spirit on Jesus meant, it clearly indicates His anointing and empowerment for ministry. Jesus Himself proclaimed this anointing in the synagogue in Nazareth (Luke 4:18; cf. Isa 61:1) when He said, The Spirit of the Lord is upon Me.
Do you think Jesus was born out of wedlock since the marriage between Joseph and Mary was not consummated until after Jesus was born? I do not believe that Jesus was born out of wedlock. Although Joseph and Mary were not officially married, they were betrothed. Jesus was born in a Jewish context where full betrothal was so binding that its breaking required a certificate of divorce, and the death of one party made the other a widow or widower. This is the reason the word divorce is used in Matt 1:19 (NIV, ESV, NET) when Joseph considered calling the relationship off so that Mary would not be disgraced. Even though Joseph and Mary had yet to consummate their marriage, divorce would have been necessary because betrothal was a covenant made one year before the consummation of the marriage. Put simply, betrothal was considered the equivalent to marriage.
How could Jesus be "made sin" when He Himself was sinless (2 Corinthians 5:21)? 2 Corinthians 5:21 states, "God made Jesus who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." Yet other verses tell us that Jesus was "without sin" (Hebrews 4:15; 1 Peter 3:18). How do we reconcile such verses?
Jesus Christ as God is immutable (Malachi 3:6; Hebrews 13:8), and cannot change in His divine nature. In Hebrews 1:12 the Father says of Jesus, ?But You are the same, and Your years will not come to an end.?
Regarding Jesus being ?made to be sin,? Jesus was always without sin actually, but He was made to be sin for us judicially. That is, by His death on the cross, He paid the penalty for our sins and thereby canceled the debt of sin against us. So, while Jesus never committed a sin personally, He was made to be sin for us substitutionally.
One must also keep in mind the Old Testament backdrop of the concept of substitution. The sacrificial victim had to be ?without defect? (Leviticus 4:3, 23, 32). A hand would be laid on the unblemished sacrificial animal as a way of symbolizing a transfer of guilt (4:4, 24, 33). The sacrificial animal did not thereby actually become sinful by nature; rather, sin was imputed to the animal and the animal acted as a sacrificial substitute. In like manner, Christ the Lamb of God was utterly unblemished (1 Peter 1:19), but our sin was imputed to Him and He was our sacrificial substitute on the cross. Simply because our sin was imputed to Him does not mean He changed in nature. Christ was not sinful personally; He was made to be sin substitutionally.
Assurance If God forgives our sins, then why will our sins be remembered at the judgment? Its critical to understand that the judgment of believers by Christ is a judgment of our works, not our sins. In 1 Cor 3:13, Paul says of each believer, His work will be shown for what it is (NIV) and Gods judgment fire will test the quality of each mans work. The Bible is clear that our sins are totally forgiven when we believe in Christ, and we stand justified (declared not guilty) in Him. Theres no condemnation for the Christian (Rom 8:1). Nevertheless, our laying up of precious stones on the foundation of Christ can apparently be replaced or prevented by sins weve committed as well as by righteous acts weve failed to do. Therefore, a believers sins contribute directly to his being able to suffer loss (1 Cor 3:15). Through this loss of reward the believer is considered to be receiving his due for his bad works (2 Cor 5:10). This is not a punishment for sins, but the withholding of rewards for works not done, that should have been.
The bad that Paul refers to in 2 Cor 5:10 most likely includes sin and unfaithfulness. Paul uses the Greek word phaulos, which refers to evil when it is contrasted with good (John 3:20; 5:29; Rom 9:11; Titus 2:8; Jas 3:16). However, this has absolutely no bearing on our salvation; rather, it relates to our service. The only way that Christ will be able to judge our stewardship is by taking into account our faithfulness or lack thereof (Luke 19:11-27). So, while the sins that you and I have committed will never come up as they pertain to our salvation, they will likely be included in the equation of our stewardship.
How can I overcome my lack of assurance and struggle over the issue of election? First of all, I want you to have every confidence that you ARE a child of God. The Apostle John writes, But as many as received Him [Jesus], to them He gave the right to become children of God, to those who believe in His name (John 1:12). This verse, along with over 150 others, teaches belief as the sole condition for salvation. Therefore, since you have believed in Jesus and his work on the cross, you can be fully assured that you will spend eternity with Him (e.g. Luke 10:20; John 13:10; Rom 8:31-39; 2 Pet 1:1; 1 John 2:12-14, 25; 5:13).
Second, your eternal Father will NEVER reject you. The Bible assures us through multiple promises that Gods love for us is unconditional and eternal. Just reflect on the following verses:
Mark 7:10 says, HONOR YOUR FATHER AND YOUR MOTHER; and HE WHO SPEAKS EVIL OF HIS FATHER OR MOTHER, IS TO BE PUT TO DEATH. Does this verse threaten a believer's assurance? In 7:10, Jesus quoted the fifth of the Ten Commandments (see Exod 20:12; cf. Deut 5:16). Honoring ones parents was (and is) very important to God. It was so important in the Old Testament that God demanded the death penalty for a child who cursed his parents (see Exod 21:17; cf. Lev 20:9). The phrase PUT TO DEATH is a reference to physical death, not spiritual death. Jesus is not speaking of a heaven or hell issue. Salvation is a free gift that is solely by grace (Eph 2:8-9). No act of disobedience will send a person to hell, with the exception of refusing to believe the gospel (John 3:36).
In 7:11, Jesus explains that the Pharisees had a little religious trick to get around the fifth commandment. It was possible to pronounce the word Corban over some of their property. (Corban refers to something that has been set aside as a gift to be given to God at some later date, but which is still in the possession of the owner, see Louw & Nida 53.22.)
To make the statement that something was Corban was to take a vow regarding the object(s) in question; a vow that could not easily be canceled (see Deut 23:21-23; Num 30:1-16). It meant that the property was now specially dedicated to God. Yet, it was not necessarily ever actually given to God. The declaration stopped ones parents from using the property (or possession) to meet their needs (Mark 7:12-13). But its original owner could use it. This was a very clever way of being religious, yet neglecting needy parents and disregarding the fifth commandment. The Jewish leaders were doing the very same thing they accused Jesus of doing, only it was a worse crime because they were nullifying, not the traditions of the elders, but Gods Word.
Ethics In Matthew 5:42 Jesus says, Give to him who asks of you, and do not turn away from him who wants to borrow from you. Does this literally mean to give to everyone who asks? What about panhandlers? In Matthew 5:38-42, Jesus gives four illustrations that serve as contrasts with the Mosaic law. In each of these principles, Jesus goes above and beyond the law. Yet, it is easy to read these verses in a literalistic sense that is not in keeping with the whole of Scripture. Jesus is simply saying that in our personal relationships we must shun any spirit of retaliation. Or as D.A. Carson writes, What Jesus is saying in these verses, more than anything else is that His followers have no rights. They do not have the right to retaliate and wreck their vengeance (5:39), they do not have the right to their possessions (5:40), nor to their time and money (5:41-42).
Matthew 5:42 has to do with the law of lending. Deuteronomy 15:7-11 indicates that debts were canceled every seven years. The borrowers loved it; the lenders werent so enthusiastic. As a lender, the closer the seventh year got, the more tightfisted businessmen became. But Jesus said they were not to allow the seventh year to govern them. Whenever a brother had a need, they were to give generously.
Jesus wasnt talking about every panhandler who sticks his hand out, and He certainly wasnt talking about lending money for business ventures. They didnt do that type of thing in the ancient world, as is practiced today. He was talking about people in need. Our only consideration should be whether we can help. If so, we are to give generously, without thought of repayment. This is in keeping with Jesus words in Matthew 5:16, Let your light shine before men in such a way that they may see your good works, and glorify your Father who is in heaven.
Will a cloned person be outside of Gods creation? Will he/she have a soul and spirit? Although I know very little about this subject and am certainly not an expert, I believe that a cloned person will be outside of Gods creation and will not have a soul or spirit.
David writes, For You formed my inward parts; You wove me in my mother's womb. I will give thanks to You, for I am fearfully and wonderfully made; Wonderful are Your works, And my soul knows it very well. My frame was not hidden from You, When I was made in secret, And skillfully wrought in the depths of the earth; Your eyes have seen my unformed substance; And in Your book were all written The days that were ordained for me, When as yet there was not one of them (Psalm 139:13-16).
This verses seem to insist that God has His natural way of making people. He designs us, makes a plan for us, and then knits us together in the womb of our mother. Cloning seems to take God out of the loop. It seems a clone would be made apart from God.
The Psalmist writes in Psalm 71:6, "By You I have been sustained from my birth; You are He who took me from my mother's womb; My praise is continually of You." This verse states that God brings us forth from the womb. It is certainly stated that God has His hand directly in natural births. However, it implies that He does not have a hand in unnatural births, such as cloning. To cut God out of the process like that is obviously wrong. It short-circuits His original plan.
As you probably know, along with the biblical issues I've raised, there are also great fears and unknowns related to cloning. This should be cause for alarm.
An interesting side note is found in the following passages.
Genesis 21:1-2 Then the LORD took note of Sarah as He had said, and the LORD did for Sarah as He had promised. So Sarah conceived and bore a son to Abraham in his old age, at the appointed time of which God had spoken to him.
Genesis 29:31-33 Now the LORD saw that Leah was unloved, and He opened her womb, but Rachel was barren. Now the LORD saw that Leah was unloved, and He opened her womb, but Rachel was barren. Leah conceived and bore a son and named him Reuben, for she said, "Because the LORD has seen my affliction; surely now my husband will love me." Then she conceived again and bore a son and said, "Because the LORD has heard that I am unloved, He has therefore given me this son also." So she named him Simeon.
Ruth 4:13b And the LORD enabled her to conceive, and she gave birth to a son.
These verses can be used to argue either side in the cloning debate. They speak of how God chooses whether or not a woman may have children (opening or closing her womb). Some people say that with cloning, say, to provide a biological child to an infertile couple, we are going against Gods decision to make them infertile. On the other hand, if God can make a woman barren to keep her from having children, He can just as easily make cloning research fruitless to keep scientists from letting that woman conceive.
I would agree with the final statement. God can put a stop to the cloning research. Whether or not He will choose to do so is an entirely different matter. I submit myself to the truths found in Isaiah 55:8-9 where the Lord says, For My thoughts are not your thoughts, Nor are your ways My ways, declares the LORD. 9 For as the heavens are higher than the earth, So are My ways higher than your ways And My thoughts than your thoughts.
Prayer How do you interpret Matt 18:19? There are many times that an entire church prays for something in common and their prayers aren't answered. The answer to your question is to see the difficult verse (Matt 18:19) in its larger context. In Matt 18:15-17, Jesus deals with the subject of church discipline. Therefore, the promise of 18:19 refers to executing judgment on a brother who sins (18:15). You may also want to note that Matthew 18:20 (For where two or three have gathered together in My name, I am there in their midst) is frequently applied to contexts of small-group prayer gatherings. Yet, the context makes it clear that a church discipline process is what is under consideration (18:19). The two or three witnesses are those who accompany the Christian who confronts his brother (cf. 18:16). Of course, we could say that a general principle is still in tact in Matthew 18:19, because there are other New Testament passages that make similar statements:
If God is sovereign and if He loves to answer His children's prayers, is it really necessary to persist in prayer? God loves it when His children persevere in prayer. I only have to think of George Muller praying some sixty-odd years for a particular person to be converted. The person then trusted in Christ at Muellers funeral! I believe God often answers persistent prayer but it can take an awfully long time. Nevertheless, persistent prayer honors God and keeps us completely dependent upon Him. For example, my mom has suffered with severe migraine headaches on a daily or every other day basis for 21 years! Yet, even today, I continue to pray for her, knowing that the Lord may choose to heal her.
Here are some Scriptures for you to read that may encourage you. Obviously, there are many more and not all of these are perfectly suited to your circumstance. Nevertheless, they are all powerful and it does a soul good to see them all grouped together and read them in a time of need. Its also rather motivational.
Why pray for the lost if God determines who will believe anyway? There are several reasons to pray for lost people. First, the Bible urges us to pray for the lost. Paul writes, First of all, then, I urge that entreaties and prayers, petitions and thanksgivings, be made on behalf of all men, for kings and all who are in authority, so that we may lead a tranquil and quiet life in all godliness and dignity. This is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth (1 Tim 2:1-4). This passage points to the priority of prayer for the lost when it says first of all. It also demonstrates that God desires believers to be involved in praying for all men to be saved. This is consistent with other Scriptures. God takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather delights when sinners turn from their evil ways (Ezek 33:11). He has commanded all men to repent (Acts 17:30) and His Gospel is to be preached to every one in the world (Matt 28:19-20; Mark 16:15; Luke 24:46-47). Therefore, we must pray that every man and every woman responds to the good news since salvation is offered to all (1 Tim 4:10; Titus 2:11; 1 John 4:14; Rev 22:17). Moreover, John wrote, This is the confidence which we have before Him, that, if we ask anything according to His will, He hears us. And if we know that He hears us in whatever we ask, we know that we have the requests which we have asked from Him (1 John 5:14-15).
Second, Jesus commands us to pray for the lost. Jesus said, Pray, then, in this way: Our Father who is in heaven, Hallowed be Your name. Your kingdom come. Your will be done, on earth as it is in heaven (Matt 6:9-10; cf. Luke 11:2). These parallel verses allude to Gods call to intercede for the lost. In the midst of Christs command to pray in this way we are told to pray for both His present and future reign in peoples lives (i.e., Your kingdom come). One application of this call is to pray for Christ to bring about the conversion of lost people. When one prays for the will of God and the kingdom of God, he is in essence praying for the same thing. He is praying for Jesus to rule in the hearts of men and women.
Third, Jesus modeled prayer for the lost. Jesus knew who His elect were, yet He prayed nonetheless that they would believe (John 17:20). We dont know who the elect are so we should be motivated by Jesus to nonetheless pray that the lost would be found.
Fourth, Paul modeled praying for the lost. Paul writes, Brethren, my hearts desire and my prayer to God for them is for their salvation (Rom 10:1). Here, Pauls desire for the lost to be saved is coupled with prayer for the same. Further evidence that Pauls heartfelt desire was for the lost to be saved can also be seen in Romans 9:1-3: I am telling the truth in Christ, I am not lying, my conscience testifies with me in the Holy Spirit, that I have great sorrow and unceasing grief in my heart. For I could wish that I myself were accursed, separated from Christ for the sake of my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh. Paul had a personal burden for lost people and so must we.
Biblical Interpretation What was the time frame from the book of Deuteronomy to the book of Isaiah? The book of Deuteronomy was written at the end of the 40 years in the wilderness (approx. 1405 B.C.) when the new generation of Israelites were on the verge of entering Canaan. Moses wrote this book to encourage the people to believe and obey God in order to receive God's blessings. The book of Isaiah was written sometime between 740-680 B.C. Isaiah announced judgment upon immoral and idolatrous Judah, the neighboring nations, and ultimately the whole world. In John 2:11, why does the NASB use the word believe and the NIV use the word faith? Is there a difference? The word that is translated "believed" (NASB) is a form of the Greek verb pisteuo. This Greek verb is most frequently rendered "believe." Yet, the verb and noun form (pisteuo and pistis) can also be rendered "trust," "entrust," "faith," etc. In John 2:11, the most popular English versions translate this word "believed" (e.g., NASB, NET, ESV, NRSV, KJV, NKJV, NLT). The NIV is the exception. Yet, their translation "put their faith in Him" is synonymous with the rendering "believed." Both translations are permissible and there is no notable difference between the two.
When I am studying a passage using laymans Greek (Strongs) I have come to a number of passages, where a plural is used, and if the word was not plural it could mean something different. Strongs makes no distinction if the word is plural or not. Is ther Yes, there are plural nouns and verbs in Greek. While Strongs doesn't necessarily recognize this fact, most English translators attempt to maintain the singular and plural distinctions of the Greek text so you should be able to recognize this in most English translations. While I believe Hebrew and Greek can be overrated, I do believe that it is usually important to note singular and plural references. Fortunately, as I've indicated most of these can be picked up by a simple reading of a more literal English translation (e.g., NASB, ESV, NET, and NKJV).
Re: 1 Cor 12:31, the noun charisma is charismata, which is an accusative neuter plural noun. All of the English translations I looked at reflect this fact. Therefore, it is best to understand charismata ("gifts") as encompassing multiple gifts. The "greater gifts" would then be referring to prophesying and possibly teaching (see 1 Cor 14:19) versus the more miraculous gifts (e.g., speaking in tongues and working miracles). In this context, Paul encouraged the Corinthians to desire the "greater" gift of prophesying (1 Cor 14:1, 5, 39a) over the miraculous. Note: the word "gifts" in 1 Cor 14:1 is not in the Greek text, but rather is supplied by most English translations. This is not necessary since the emphasis seems to be on prophesying.
I see the bridge in this passage as the phrase "a still more excellent way" (1 Cor 12:31b). This is Paul's segue to love (1 Cor 13), which is the oil that causes all the gears to work properly.
I was reading Genesis and came across 1:26, which says, "Then God said 'Let us make man in our own image.'" The pronoun "us" throws me. The Bible teaches that each member of the Godhead was involved in creation (see Gen 1:26; John 1:1-3; Col 1:16-17; Heb 1:1-2). The plural pronoun us in Gen 1:26 is a reference to the plurality of God, hence a hint of the Trinity (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit). How should we interpret Jesus words in Matthew 24:34: Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these things take place? This is one of the hardest verses in the gospels to interpret. Various views exist for what generation means.
(1) Some take it as meaning, race and thus as an assurance that the Jewish race (nation) will not pass away. But it is very questionable that the Greek term genea can have this meaning. Two other options are possible.
(2) Generation might mean this type of generation and refer to the generation of wicked humanity. Then the point is that humanity will not perish, because God will redeem it.
(3) Generation may refer to the generation that sees the signs of the end (Matt 24:30), who will also see the end itself. In other words, once the movement to the return of Christ starts, all the events connected with it happen very quickly, in rapid succession. I opt for this view. In Hebrews 2:5-8, I dont understand what clues there are that imply these verses are referring to man and not Jesus? How do I know that 2:5 is referring to man because the whole world is subject under Jesus but evidently this is referring to man when i The answer is found in how one interprets the Hebrew writers use of Psalm 8:4-6 the Old Testament passage that is quoted in Hebrews 2:6-8a. Due to some technical grammatical issues, scholars disagree over whether these verses are specifically referring to Jesus or mankind.
Beginning in Heb 2:5, the word "for" alludes to the content of Heb 1:5-14. In this previous section, the subject matter is how the Son (Jesus) is superior to the angels. The Greek word oikoumene that renders the phrase "the world to come" is used to describe the world of people and their civilizations. It means the coming inhabited earth. Thus, the Hebrew writer is speaking of the future rule of the Son and His companions (Heb 1:9) on the earth (i.e., the millennial kingdom). The point of this verse is that angels will not rule in the age to come. Rather, believers will judge angels (1 Cor 6:3).
Hebrews 2:6-8 is a quotation of Psalm 8:4-6: "What is man, that you remember him, or the son of man, that you are concerned about him? You have made him for a little while lower than the angels; you have crowned him with glory and honor, and have appointed him over the works of your hands. You have put all things in subjection under his feet." This is where the real difficult lies. The phrase "son of man" can be understood as a reference to Jesus (Dan 7:13-14; Matt 16:13) or mankind in general (Num 23:19). It seems best in this context to understand it as referring to mankind in general. Another debatable issue is the word translated the "angels." In the Greek Old Testament, the word aggelous is usually understood to refer to a supernatural messenger, although it can refer to a human messenger. However, in the Hebrew Old Testament, the word used in Psalm 8:6 is elohim, a word that means "God" or "gods." While elohim often refers to the one true God, it can also refer to the members of the heavenly assembly (Ps 82:1, 6). While some understand this as a reference to God alone, the allusion to Gen 1:26-27 suggests a broader referent, including God and angels (cf. Gen 3:5, 22). It is also worth noting that the LXX (the Greek translation of the Old Testament) is the source of the quotation in Heb 2:7 and it reads "angels."
The Hebrew writer is saying the God who created the stars and calls them all by name (Isa 40:26) is unimaginably awesome; His wisdom, beauty, power, and dominion are beyond human comprehension. Yet, He desires to seek intimacy with the people on this puny planet and has given them great dignity and destiny. We were made to rule over the works of Gods hands (Ps 8:6-8), but we forfeited this dominion in the devastation of the fall (but now we do not yet see all things subjected to him; Heb 2:8b). But by Christ's humiliation and exaltation, all things will be subjected under His feet when He returns (1 Cor 15:24-28; Phil 2:6-11), and we will live and reign with Him (Rom 5:17; 2 Tim 2:12; Rev 5:10; 20:6). This is the point of Heb 2:9: The only way that we will be able to reign is through Jesus work and our faithfulness to persevere.
It is important to understand that bringing many sons to glory (Heb 2:10) is not a reference to taking believers to heaven. It is bringing fellow suffers to future glory (2 Cor 4:17). When believers suffer, they become sons in the sense that they are like their Father (cf. Matt 5:44-45). The salvation (Heb 2:10) refers to our future salvation, our glorification in Christ's coming kingdom (Heb 1:14). Again, the whole thrust of this passage is dealing with a future salvation that will be realized during Christ's kingdom.
What is the significance of Galatians 1:20? Why is Paul defending himself on such a seemingly trivial issue? To answer this question, it is important to understand the overall context of this verse. The first two chapters of Galatians are introductory and foundational. The Galatian believers had deserted God by adopting a perverted version of the gospel (1:6?9). The Galatians were being influenced by the teaching of the Judaizers, who sought to add adherence to the Old Testament law as a requirement for salvation. The Judaizers attacked Paul?s apostleship as part of their teaching of a ?different gospel,? a gospel different from that which Paul had proclaimed. Chapters 1 and 2 are a defense of both Paul?s apostleship and of the gospel that he had proclaimed. Chapters 3 and 4 expose the theological error of Judaism by turning back to the Old Testament law, demonstrating that it was neither intended, nor able, to accomplish what the Judaizers promised. Finally in chapters 5 and 6 Paul explains how God has made provision for holiness through the grace of the gospel. Thus, it is only grace that supplies the holiness the law demanded.
Now in Gal 1:20, Paul exclaims, ?I assure you that, before God, I am not lying about what I am writing to you! (NET). By making such a forceful statement, Paul wants to strengthen the points of his letter (even what may appear to be less significant matters, i.e., his history, James? apostleship) by stating before God he is not lying?he is telling the truth. Paul uses the phrase ?I am not lying? three other times (Rom 9:1; 2 Cor 11:31; 1 Tim 2:7) when he is trying to drive home a point. In Gal 1:20, Paul is implying that someone indeed is lying to the Galatians?the Judaizers. The reason that he comes on so strong is because if his character or apostleship is questioned so is his message. Paul speaks about those that say one thing and do another in Rom 2:21-24 and states that inconsistency in character while preaching God?s message causes others to think less of God. God is judged by the conduct of those who proclaim his message.
I think it is also worth noting that if there is error in any of Paul?s facts or experiences, this causes his entire message to be suspect. The same is true with the whole of the Scriptures. If there is error in even a seemingly trivial matter (e.g., geography, history, figures, etc.), can the gospel really be trusted? Fortunately, God?s Word declares that it is ?absolutely pure? (Ps 119:140 NET) in everything that it teaches.
How does the Bible visualize our forgiveness? When God forgives, He cleanses our sin and blots out our transgressions (Psalm 51:1-2).
When God forgives, He removes our sin from us as far as east from west (Psalm 103:12).
When God forgives, He declares that we are whiter than snow (Isaiah 1:18).
When God forgives, He casts our sins behind His back (Isaiah 38:17).
When God forgives, He casts our sins into the depths of the sea (Micah 7:19).
When God forgives, He cancels our great debt (Matthew 18:27).
God provided this assortment of images because we need to visualize the vast, multi-dimensions of His grace. So when you pray, confess your sins, and claim God?s forgiveness, you can do so with confidence because you are righteous in God?s sight through the grace of our Lord Jesus.
Heaven Will there be marriage in heaven? No. The institution of marriage was designed for this earthly life only. A group of Sadducees (who did not believe in the afterlife) asked Jesus: If a woman has seven different husbands in this life, whose wife will she be in heaven? Jesus replied, The sons of this age marry and are given in marriage, but those who are considered worthy to attain to that age and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry nor are given in marriage; for they cannot even die anymore, because they are like angels, and are sons of God, being sons of the resurrection (Luke 20:34-36). Note: Jesus did not say we become angels when we die, but in heaven, like the angels, we will not marry.
Since marriages wont exist in heaven, no children will be born in the next life. Those who were husbands and wives on earth will know each other in heaven, but wont be married, since the marriage covenant is dissolved when a person dies (Rom 7:2). Although this saddens me, I always remind myself that everything in heaven is far better than anything on earth. Did God make a mistake by not including marriage in the next life? Certainly not. No one will be disappointed in heaven, and all relationships will be exalted to perfection in Gods eternal kingdom.
Once I get to heaven will I be grieving that certain family members wont be there? In heaven family will surround us all because of our essential identity as brothers and sisters, sharing a common Father. This is not a pretend family but a very real one. Its not that God merely uses the earthly family as an illustration of His eternal family; its that the earthly family was designed after the ultimate; its but a model of the real thing in heaven. (Sometimes the model is very good, sometimes very poor, but never is it as good as the ultimate thing it was made to reflect and point to.) Jesus spoke of family relationships that go far deeper than blood relations.
While Jesus was still talking to the crowd, His mother and brothers stood outside, wanting to speak to Him. Someone said to Him, Behold, Your mother and Your brothers are standing outside seeking to speak to You. But Jesus answered the one who was telling Him and said, Who is My mother and who are My brothers? And stretching out His hand toward His disciples, He said, Behold My mother and My brothers! For whoever does the will of My Father who is in heaven, he is My brother and sister and mother (Matt 12:46-50).
In heaven Jesus will wipe away our tears and there wont be any more pain (Rev 21:4), so we know we will not be gripped by remorse at anything, including the fact that certain family members from earth arent there. We will have an eternal perspective, we will know that God has been just in his judgments, and will not be plagued by doubt. Naturally, we cant imagine that now, but thats because were not in heavenfar from it! When the child is in the womb he cant imagine what awaits him on the outside, but its true nonetheless.
What is purgatory? Purgatory is the teaching of the Roman Catholic Church that there exists a place after death where some of the sins of people are purged through suffering. After a period of time corresponding to the suffering necessary for the sins committed, the person is then set free and enters heaven. Gifts or services rendered to the church, prayers by the priests, and masses provided by relatives or friends in behalf of the deceased, can shorten, alleviate, or eliminate the sojourn of the soul in purgatory.
This is an unbiblical doctrine rejected by the Protestant church. It reflects the misunderstanding of the atonement of Christ as well as adding insult to the finished work of the cross. The error of purgatory is the teaching that we might perfect ourselves and remove sin through our sufferings. If that were possible, then why did Christ need to die? Paul writes, I do not nullify the grace of God, for if righteousness comes through the Law, then Christ died needlessly (Gal 2:21). On the cross Jesus said, It is finished. (John 19:30). In the Greek, this was an accounting term, which meant a debt was paid in full. If the Payment for our sins was paid in full on the cross, then how could purgatory be a reality?especially when the Scriptures dont mention it and even contradict it: Just as man is destined to die once, and after that to face judgment (Heb 9:27).
The Bible teaches that believers go immediately to heaven. Before Christs death on the cross for our sin, it was called Abrahams bosom (Luke 16:22; cf. Luke 23:43; 2 Cor 12:4). Today, the New Testament declares that believers go directly into the presence of the Lord (cf. 2 Cor 5:6-8; Phil 1:21-24). Believers will be resurrected to face the judgment seat of Christ where they will be held accountable for this life. At that point their works will be evaluated and, based on the nature of those works, they will either receive rewards or lose rewards (Rom 14:10-12; 1 Cor 3:10-15; 2 Cor 5:10).
The Bible teaches that at death unbelievers go to a place of torments called hades or sheol in the Old Testament. It is a temporary place of torment where unbelievers remain until they are resurrected to face the great white throne judgment (Rev 20:11-15). From there they will be cast permanently into the eternal lake of fire.
In addition to the above Scriptures, the book of Hebrews is helpful. In Heb 9:27-10:18, the Hebrew writer says the Law and its sacrifices are not able to make perfect those who draw near (10:1). Thats why Jesus came to do Gods will. The Holy Spirit then bears witness to us because we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all (10:10). This is affirmed in Heb 10:17 with the promise, their sins and their lawless deeds I will remember no more.
This is further affirmed in Heb 10:19-23: Therefore, brethren, since we have confidence to enter the holy place by the blood of Jesus, by a new and living way which He inaugurated for us through the veil, that is, His flesh, and since we have a great priest over the house of God, let us draw near with a sincere heart in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled clean from an evil conscience and our bodies washed with pure water. Let us hold fast the confession of our hope without wavering, for He who promised is faithful.
The explicit teaching of Scripture is that we have been fully cleansed and therefore we have the privilege of going directly into the Holy of Holies in the presence of Jesus Christ. There is NO purgatory. Rather, to be absent from the body is to be at home with the Lord (2 Cor 5:6). We will be with Him because the blood of Christ has already cleansed us.
Why does Rev 4:8b say day and night the four living creatures never cease praying God, but there is no night in heaven (Rev 21:25). How can the 24 elders be seated on their thrones (Rev 4:4) and also be falling down before Gods throne (Rev 4:9-11)? The phrase day and night they do not cease (lit. they do not rest) to say.... means they offer incessant praise before the throne of God. While it is true that there is no day and night in heaven (Rev 21:25), this phrase is used here as a figure of speech. It is important to remember that John is writing in the apocalyptic genre and is seeing a vision that he relates in a way that we can grasp (sort of) the infinite and incomprehensible.
I might add that the continuous praise of the living creatures does not suggest that they do not have other functions. (This also demonstrates that this expression is not to be rigidly understood.) In Rev 6:1, 3, 5, and 7 they are responsible for summoning the riders to advance the tribulation. This does not violate the statement about ceaseless praise because they do not rest is qualified by the words by day and by night. The manner of expression in Greek indicates this is a kind of time expressed rather than the extent of time (cf. 1 Thess 2:9; 2 Thess 3:8).
Now, regarding the worship of the 24 elders: They are seated on thrones, which pictures their eternal reward (Rev 3:21). Yet, when or whenever (i.e., every time) the living creatures worship the Lord, these elders follow suite. In fact, whenever the elders are found in the presence of God or Christ they fall prostrate in worship (Rev 4:10-11; 5:8, 14; 7:11; 11:16; 19:4). Again, this does not indicate that the only thing we will be doing in heaven is prostrating ourselves before the Lord. On the contrary, we will have other roles and responsibilities in the eternal realm (e.g., work, fellowship, and recreation). Yet, the primary role of the angelic and human realm is and always will be to worship God and the Lamb.
Law I do not understand why we recognize Sunday as our set-aside day of worship, when the last day of the week, the Sabbath, was clearly designated in Old Testament Scripture. First, the Sabbath was an event in the life of God (Gen 2:1-3). It was intended for His pleasure, not because He needed to rest (Gen 1:31). Gods Sabbath has not ended and He continues to work (Exod 20:11; John 5:17).
Second, the Old Testament Law (including the Sabbath) was intended for the nation of Israel (Lev 26:46; Rom 9:4). No passage says it clearer than Psalm 147:19-20: He declares His words to Jacob, His statutes and His ordinances to Israel. He has not dealt thus with any nation (emphasis added). To Israel alone God gave a covenant of Law, a point emphasized by the opening words of the Ten Commandments (Exod 20:2). Further, Paul contrasted the Jews who received the Law with the Gentiles who did not (Rom 2:14).
Third, the Sabbath was the sign of the covenant between God and Israel (Exod 31:13-17; 35:2-3). Failure to observe the Sabbath brought the death penalty (Exod 31:15). It is interesting to note that the fourth commandment is the lone commandment not repeated in the New Testament. While the other nine commands are clearly rooted in Gods character, since the Sabbath was a specific national sign for Israel, it is not binding on New Testament saints.
Fourth, NO New Testament letter ever hints at any kind of Sabbath keeping (Rom 14:5; Gal 4:10; Col 2:16).
Finally, in Acts 20:6-7, there is evidence that the Ephesian Christians met on the first day of the week (cf. 1 Cor 16:1-2; many Bible students also suggest Rev 1:10). The early church began to meet on the first day of the week because it reminded them of Jesus resurrection and the outpouring of the Holy Spirit (John 20:19, 26; Acts 2:1). Yet, even in this there is no legislation that requires Christians to meet on Sunday. While we are commanded NOT to forsake our assembling together (Heb 10:25), this can happen any day of the week.
End Times Why is it necessary for Christ to return to earth to reign for a 1,000 years? Christ must reign on the earth for 1,000 years (John uses the phrase thousand years six times in Rev 20:1-7) for the following reasons:
What happens to those people that enter into the millennium? Those Jewish and Gentile believers that survived the tribulation will enter into the millennium in their physical bodies. It will be a time of unprecedented earthly bliss. The glorified and exalted Lord Jesus will be ruling and reigning in righteousness (Isa 11:4-5; 32:1; 33:5), Satan will be bound (Rev 20:1-3), the world will be characterized by peace (Isa 2:4; 11:6-9; 32:18), joy (Isa 9:3-4), a full knowledge of the Lord (Jer 31:34), and the fullness of the Holy Spirit (Joel 2:28-32). It will be wonderful!
Unfortunately, some people that are born during the millennium will refuse to believe in Christ. However, Jesus will quickly and severely judge those that outwardly rebel (Ps 2:9; Isa 9:7; 11:1-5; Zech 14:6-8). The King will tolerate no war or insurrection in His kingdom (Isa 2:4). He will preside as the judge over any national or personal disputes (Isa 2:3-4). There will be other unbelievers that outwardly conform to avoid judgment, but they will still have a rebellious heart. These unbelievers will foolishly join Satan in his final revolt (Rev 20:7-10).
Why is the church so unique from Gentiles who will become believers during the tribulation? The church (Acts 2 through the rapture) has a special role in the fulfillment of Gods program. Due to Israels failure, God will use the church to be a blessing to the nations (cf. Gen 12:1-3). Once the church is raptured, God will again turn His attention to Israel. I believe God loves all of His children (Israel, Old Testament Gentile believers, the church, tribulation saints, millennium saints, etc.). However, each group has its own unique purposes to fulfill to accomplish Gods program. One is not better than the other, just different.
Those tribulation saints that endure to the end will maintain their physical bodies as they enter the millennium. When they die (Isa 65:20), they will likely be given a glorified body. The same holds true for those that live to the end of the millennium. It should be acknowledged that Scripture does not explicitly comment on this issue. However, Paul said, Now I say this, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable (1 Cor 15:50).
Old Testament saints will be resurrected at Christs second coming (Dan 12:1-2). The tribulation saints that were not martyred (both Jew and Gentile) will enter into the millennium in their natural bodies. Again, it is a matter of different people, at different times, accomplishing different roles in Gods program.
If all the unrighteous are wiped out at Christs return to earth who will we be reigning over? Will the Jew/Gentile believers have a different status than the church? The Bible is not explicitly clear on what or whom believers will rule over in the millennium. In Revelation 20:4, 6, John saw thrones and those who sat on them. The Bible identifies who will be seated upon these thrones: the apostles (Matt 19:27-28), the church (1 Cor 6:2-3), and tribulation saints (Rev 20:4). Scripture indicates from the above passages and others that we will assist Christ in ruling over cities, over other believers, and even over angels (1 Cor 6:2-3; Rev 22:5).
Although this is certainly debated, I believe that Israel and the church will eventually merge into one people of God. While there are distinctions in Gods plan and program, both entities are still His people. I understand the marriage of the Lamb to take place in the millennium (Rev 19:7). I also believe that the redeemed saints of all ages will be present for this marriage supper (see Isa 54:6; Ezek 16:8ff; Hos 2:14ff; Matt 8:11). In the Old Testament, Israel is viewed as the unfaithful wife of Yahweh, who was put away [Hos 2:2], but one day will be reunited to Him [2:19-20; cf. Isa 62:1-5]). The millennium will then celebrate the union between Christ and His people, that is, the church and Israel.
Note: Even if one disagrees with this assessment, it must be acknowledged that the bride in Revelation 21:12 and 14 includes Israel. This indicates that the bride, the New Jerusalem will be a growing body of people that will eventually encompass Israel as well as the church.
Does Matthew 24:40-41 refer to the rapture or to the judgment that follows the tribulation? Matt 24:40-41 reads: Then there will be two men in the field; one will be taken and one will be left. Two women will be grinding at the mill; one will be taken and one will be left. We have also heard many preachers equate this one taken, the other left passage with the rapture. And while there is much in the Olivet Discourse (Matt 24-25) from which those of us who are getting ready for the rapture can profit, that is not the main group Jesus is addressing in this passage. He is talking mainly to the Jews as well as to others who will be left behind to go into the tribulation. They will then expectantly look for His second advent at the end of that time.
Specifically, Matthew 24:40-41 is saying that when Jesus returns to judge all survivors of the tribulation, some will be taken in judgment, and others will be left to go with Him into His millennial kingdom. Just prior to this, our Lord equated this judgment to that which occurred in Noahs time. The flood came and took the ungodly away in judgment (Matt 24:39) but Noah and his family were left to repopulate the earth. The judgment at the end of the tribulation to which Jesus is referring in this passage is the judgment of the nations. More details about this judgment may be found in Matthew 25:31-46. But in summary, it determines the fate of the human survivors of the tribulation. The unrighteous goats will be sent to hades, there to await the great white throne judgment at the end of the millennium. The sheep on the other hand, will have the privilege of living with Christ during His 1,000-year reign on earth.
Why is it necessary for God to bring our spirits back to earth to reunite them with our bodies at the time of the rapture and resurrection? Could God not give us new, glorified bodies in heaven? Yes, He could but this would not really be us then, would it? Remember that when we receive our glorified bodies, we will be as Christ was when He was glorified at His resurrection. 1 John 3:2 tells us, Beloved, now we are children of God, and it has not appeared as yet what we will be. We know that when He appears, we will be like Him, because we will see Him just as He is. Our new bodies will be incorruptible, but they will be recognizable to those around us, just as we were previously. Read the accounts of the events following Christs resurrection in the Gospels. Although some of Jesus followers had a difficult time identifying Him at first (Luke 24:16; John 20:14, 21:4), they eventually knew, through interacting with Him, that it was indeed He. Evidently, for us to maintain this kind of recognition, our old bodies, or what is left of them, must be resurrected, and this is why God has chosen to accomplish the task of providing us with glorified bodies in this manner. In 1 John 4:3, how can the Antichrist be already in the world and yet still to come? What about the phrase the spirit of the antichrist? In the book of Revelation, the Apostle John (the author of 1 John) refers to the Antichrist by the title the false prophet (Rev 13:11-17; 16:13; 19:20; 20:10). In 1 John 4:1, John writes, Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world. In Johns mind, the Antichrist is the ultimate manifestation of false prophecy and the many false prophets (1 John 4:1) are his precursors. This is confirmed by 1 John 2:18: Children, it is the last hour; and just as you heard that antichrist is coming, even now many antichrists have appeared; from this we know that it is the last hour.
John is saying that teachers that do not confess Jesus (1 John 4:3) are antichrists with a small a. The Greek word anti means against or in place of. Thus, antichrists may refer generally to any apostate teacher who is against Christ or who claims to be Christ (Matt 24:23-24; 1 John 2:18; 4:3). The Antichrist refers to the final and horrible world ruler of the tribulation. He is one who stands both against Christ and who seeks to usurp Christs place as the False Messiah of the Jews (see 2 Thess 2:3-4).
Church Discipline How are we as a church to relate to believers in sin? 1 Corinthians 5:11 says, "But actually, I wrote to you not to associate with any so-called brother if he is an immoral person, or covetous, or an idolater, or a reviler, or a drunkard, or a swindler, not even to eat with such a one."
Paul exhorted the Corinthian Christians not to associate with anyone who was a part of their church (or in principle, who claimed to be a Christian), who was involved in overt, unrepentant sin. In biblical times, eating with others was the greatest expression of intimate fellowship.
Today, this may not be as true. Regardless, the principle remains: If another Christian has refused to repent of overt sin and rebellion against God (e.g. sexual relations with ones step mom, 5:1), we must NOT have fellowship with him/her. This means that we dont spend time (associate) with such a person for the purpose of friendship. Rather, if and when we do spend time with such a person, we do so for the purpose of lovingly confronting and correcting the believers behavior.
Please notice that Paul makes it clear that this principle ONLY applies within the church (5:10-12). If someone in the world is living in a similarly sinful manner, we CAN associate with that person because he/she is a sinner, NOT a saint (i.e. a Christian who should know better). Obviously, Christians are held to a higher standard than the world. Since God has called us to reach out to the lost with the love of Christ, we must go after them while they are neck deep in their sin. However, for the sake of the purity of the church, we must NOT tolerate scandalous and unrepentant sin within the body (5:6-8, 13). Election Did Christ die to make salvation possible or did He die to actually save the elect? I believe Christ died to make salvation possible AND to actually save the elect. I also believe that the Bible teaches that Christ died for the sins of the whole world. My conviction is based upon the following verses:
John 1:29: The next day he saw Jesus coming to him and said, Behold, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world!
John 3:16: For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.
1 Timothy 2:6: who gave Himself as a ransom for all, the testimony given at the proper time.
1 Timothy 4:10: For it is for this we labor and strive, because we have fixed our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of believers.
Titus 2:11: For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation to all men.
Hebrews 2:9: But we do see Him who was made for a little while lower than the angels, namely, Jesus, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, so that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone.
2 Peter 2:1: But false prophets also arose among the people, just as there will also be false teachers among you, who will secretly introduce destructive heresies, even denying the Master who bought them, bringing swift destruction upon themselves.
1 John 2:2: and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world.
I think your analogy of an arranged marriage by the Father (i.e., the election of the bride) is profound. I agree with you. The Father not only knows His bride, He actively draws the members of the bride to Himself (see John 6:44). He even gives the members of the bride to the Bridegroom (John 6:38; 17:2). These actions stem from Gods foreknowledge and election.
The word foreknowledge (proginosko) does not suggest that God merely foreknew those individuals who would believe in Christ and then chose these persons for salvation. The term foreknew is found only seven times in the New Testament. The verb form is found in Acts 26:5; Romans 8:29; 11:2; 1 Peter 1:20; and 2 Peter 3:17. The noun form is found in Acts 2:23 and 1 Peter 1:2. This root meaning, to know before seems to be intended in Acts 26:5 and 2 Peter 3:17. However, several observations should be made: First, in Acts 26:5 and 2 Peter 3:17, it is mans foreknowledge which is in view and not Gods. Second, the word foreknow means more than the fact that God knows the future. Third, the word foreknow is never used for Gods knowledge of events and things; it is only used of His knowledge of people. For example, in Romans 8:29, the object of foreknew is those whom. The object is people. Fourth, the key to understanding this term as Paul uses it is to better understand the way in which God knew men in the Old Testament.
The English word know can be the translation of several terms (both Hebrew and Greek). Its meaning can range from a simple knowledge to a much more intimate knowledge. For example, we are told that Adam knew his wife Eve, so that she conceived and gave birth to Cain (Gen 4:1). Obviously, this knowledge is much more than mere intellectual awareness. It speaks of a knowledge founded on love. Both the Old and New Testaments use the word know to describe an experiential knowledge grounded in love (e.g.. Gen. 18:19; Exod 2:25; Deut 34:10; Ps 1:6; 144:3; Isa 46:9-10; Jer 1:5; Hosea 13:5; Amos 3:2; Matt 1:25; 7:23; John 1:10; 10:14, 27; 17:3; 1 Cor 8:3; Gal 4:9; 2 Tim 2:19; 1 John 3:1). Lastly, it is worth noting that the biblical authors had a choice of two Greek words, which mean foreknowledge (proginosko and prooida). They chose the word proginosko that indicates experiential knowledge of something or someone, instead of the word that tends to identify that which is known as intellectual knowledge (i.e., knowledge of facts).
Like foreknowledge, the doctrine of election points to Gods sovereign love for specific individuals. I believe the Bible teaches the following truths about election:
Election is necessary in light of mans total depravity (Rom 3:10-20; Eph 4:17-19).
Election is necessary in light of mans inability (Eph 2:1-3).
Election is individual and unconditional (Acts 13:48; Rom 9:11; 1 Thess 1:4).
Election is compatible with Gods sovereignty (Jer 10:23; Prov 19:21).
Election is compatible with mans responsibility (John 3:16-18; Rev 22:17).
Election is portrayed as being from all eternity (Eph 1:4; 2 Tim 1:9).
Election is designed for the purpose of sanctification (John 15:16; Col 3:12; 2 Thess 2:13; 1 Pet 2:9).
Election is a loving expression of Gods grace (Eph 1:4-11).
Election is a sovereign expression of Gods glory (Eph 1:12-14).
You also asked about the relationship of regeneration in salvation. The word regeneration occurs in Titus 3:5; James 1:18; and 1 Peter 1:3, 23. Spiritual birth is also discussed in John 1:13 and 3:3-8. Reformed theologians insist that regeneration must precede faith because of total depravity. They argue that if depravity is truly total, then a persons sinful will must be regenerated before he/she can believe. While this certainly seems to make sense logically, there is no evidence to support this notion in the Scriptures. This understanding of regeneration is much like the Reformed view of limited atonement.
I believe the above verses indicate that regeneration does not precede faith. Rather, I believe that regeneration takes place simultaneously with faith or after faith. If you are interested in learning more, I encourage you to check out David Andersons article, Regeneration: A Crux Interpretum. Click here: <a href="http://www.faithalone.org/journal/2000ii/Anderson.htm.This" target="_blank">http://www.faithalone.org/journal/2000ii/Anderson.htm.This</a> is the best article Ive ever read on this subject.
Please define/describe election and predestination. Are they the same or are they different? If different, how are they different? At this point in my study, I believe that election and predestination are related terms. Ephesians 1:1-14 may be the most helpful passage for sorting these truths out (both terms are used in this context). The clear teaching of Scripture is that believers have been chosen before the foundation of the world (Eph 1:4). This important expression teaches us that God did not choose us on the basis of our faith or what we would become. His election was unconditional (cf. Rom 9:6-23). Yet, it is important to note that election and predestination are not just to salvation, but also to sanctification and glorification (cf. Eph 1:4-5; Rom 8:28-30). In other words, those whom God has chosen are chosen not just to be saved, but also to be sanctified. Again, Paul writes, In Him also we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to His purpose who works all things after the counsel of His will (Eph 1:11). To emphasize either the salvation or sanctification aspect only is one-sided. Gods purposes include both.
My nutshell summary of these difficult concepts is this:
Romans 9:22 reads, What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? How do you explain this verse? It is theologically true that only (and all of) the elect are (ultimately) saved, but it is also true that all human beings (including the elect) are born dead in trespasses and sin. Moreover, the elect are not saved arbitrarily/automatically but only by the atoning work of Christ, personally received through active faith in Him (see Eph 1:13). The elect (from all eternity) are not saved (in time) until they believe in Christ! Moreover the elect are not forced to believe, God draws each believer persuasively not coercively! God opens the heart (Acts 16:14)...but we actively believe (Acts 16:30-31)!
It is not correct to say that the lost are thus so because they have not been elected. People are lost due to their own sin (Rom 3:23, 6:23) and their own failure to believe on the Savior (John 3:16-18). This failure to believe is not due to Gods restraining them from believing! God reveals Himself to everyone in a basic sense (Ps 19; Rom 1) and the Holy Spirit works to convict the world of sin, righteousness, and judgment (John 16:8-11). As men respond positively to the light of Gods truth made available to them through both general revelation and common grace...they will continue to receive more and more light, leading eventually to a Gospel hearing(s) and as they continue to respond, efficacious grace culminating in their personal expression of saving faith in Christ. However, those who end up in the lake of fire short circuit this process at some point (Rev 20:11-15).
By rejecting the light/the truth that has been made available to them, thus we read, he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God (John 3:18b).
This logically non-symmetrical, but biblical distinction between the elect and those who refuse to believe is validated throughout Scripture. For example, in Romans 9:22-23, when Paul contrasts the vessels of mercy (the saved) and the vessels of wrath (the lost), he consistently switches between the middle (reflexive...the subject does the action of the verb to or for him/herself) and passive (the subject receives the action of the verb) voices in the Greek text. He describes the vessels of mercy in the passive voice, meaning that they receive the action of God drawing them to believe. He describes the vessels of wrath in the middle voice, meaning that they (not God) drew themselves back from believing.
Apparent Contradictions How do the two accounts of Sauls death not contradict? (See 1 Sam 31:4-6; 2 Sam 1:5-10) There are two dominant views on how to handle this apparent contradiction. The first view suggests that this young man is merely telling David a tale that he made up. David was in Ziklag, his base (2 Sam 1:1), when a man arrived from Mount Gilboa where Saul had been killed (1:2-3). He tells David about Sauls death (1:4) and claims to have helped Saul commit suicide (1:5-10). It is likely that the young man is fabricating the account in a self-serving way so as to gain favor with David. He probably had come across Sauls corpse in the middle of the battlefield (or he may have been a witness to the events in 1 Samuel 31). He then stole the crown and bracelet from Sauls body and handed these emblems of Sauls royalty over to David. No doubt this young man assumed that this gesture would endear him to David. Of course, he was DEAD wrong.
The second view presents both accounts as factual, but instead of being contradictory, they are complementary. I opt for this second view. This is the argument that I would build: Our author tells us specifically that this young man came out of the camp from Saul (1:2). Further, the young mans description of Sauls physical condition, of the closing pursuit of the Philistines, and of his request to be put to death (not to mention the fact that he has obtained Sauls crown and bracelet), almost forces us to conclude that he was indeed there just as he said. Also, we must note that David takes his words at face value. David does not have this young man put to death for claiming to kill Saul, but for having done so. As David takes this mans words at face value, so should we.
Although some think this view is inconsistent with the description of Sauls death in 1 Samuel, it seems to be complementary. When both accounts are put together we can arrive at a fairly clear picture of what happened. I believe that when Sauls armor-bearer hesitated (or refused) to kill his master, Saul fell on his own sword. The armor-bearer did not stop to pronounce Saul dead, or even to wait for him to be completely dead. He knew Saul either was dead or soon would be. And so he quickly fell on his own sword, dying quickly and leaving Saul still alive. This is the point at which the young Amalekite seems to come on the scene.
This young man just happens to be on Mount Gilboa when he comes upon Saul. He does not really tell us what he is doing there. It is likely that he is looting Sauls camp before the Philistines arrive. He certainly is not defending Saul from the Philistines. He comes across Saul while he is still alive. Saul is on the ground, or as the text reads, he had fallen (2 Sam 1:10). Sauls body, riddled with Philistine arrows, is now run through by his own sword. Nevertheless, he is not yet dead. He seems to be propping himself up by leaning upon his sword, which probably relieves some pressure and pain from the arrows and the sword.
Looking around, Saul sees the young man arrive and size up the situation. Saul calls out to the fellow, and he responds, Here I am. He then asks this young man who he is. Saul may wonder if he is a Philistine, since they are pressing their attack and will soon be closing in on him (31:6). The young man informs Saul that he is an Amalekite. Saul then appeals to this fellow to put him out of his misery.
The text emphasizes that this messenger is an Amalekite, which is no coincidence. (Saul was to have killed the Amalekites (see 1 Samuel 15). It was Amalekite raiders who sacked Ziklag and kidnapped the families of David and his men. Only three days earlier David had returned to Ziklag, after pursuing these Amalekites and slaughtering them (2 Sam 11:1) Saul seems to take courage in this fact. He seems more confident to ask this fellow to kill him because he is an Amalekite. After all, he has just asked his armor-bearer, who declines. An Amalekite will not have such scruples about killing the King of Israel. Indeed, when Saul ordered his servants to kill Ahimelech and the other priests, they declined, and so Saul turned to Doeg, the Edomite, who willingly complied with his orders (see 1 Samuel 22:16-19). Thus, even if an Israelite will not put Saul to death, the king feels relatively certain that an Amalekite will.
Saul asks the young man to come and stand over him and put him to death. The NASB renders it more generically: Please stand beside me and kill me (31:9). The King James Version is more starkly literal when it renders these words, Stand, I pray thee, upon me, and slay me. . . . The young man then says, So I stood upon him, and slew him (31:10, KJV). My point in emphasizing these words is that the young man must have been there and done that to be so precise in his description of Sauls last few moments and death. Saul is lying on the ground, partially propped up by his spear. Saul begs the young man to come and stand over him because he is on the ground, and the young man would have to do this to kill him. The young Amalekite obliges Saul by killing him. We are not told what weapon he uses or how he uses it to dispatch Saul. The irony is that Saul would have been dead in a few moments anyway. This murder (recounted as though it was a mercy killing) deprives Saul of but a few minutes of life. Nonetheless, it is murder.
The Amalekite confesses to killing Saul, and then rationalizes his actions in 2 Samuel 1:10. He did stand over Saul and kill him but this was because he knew that having fallen, Saul would never get up again. He would have died anyway, right there in that place. Besides this, he did for Saul exactly what Saul begged him to do. Saul wanted to be put out of his misery and this young man obliged him. Isnt this the compassionate thing to do? He thinks a reward might be given for this but he ends up getting much more than he expected. He did what Saul wanted and he did what he supposed David wanted. He believed he could not be faulted for doing what Saul and David desired. He removed the crown and bracelet from Sauls corpse and rushed with them to David, his lord (1:10). Is it not the time for David to assume his place as king? Of course, we know that this sealed the young mans fate.
I am indebted to my friend, Bob Deffinbaugh, a teaching elder at Community Bible Chapel in Richardson, Texas for much of my understanding of this passage.
Are there two creation accounts in Gensis 1-2? In order to maintain a chronological format, only a very general description of mans creation is given in 1:26-31. Chapter two returns to this matter of the creation of man with a much more detailed account. Far from contradicting chapter one, as some scholars have suggested, it greatly compliments it. While it is stated that God created man, both male and female (1:26-27), it is described more fully in chapter 2. So the general overview is 1:1-2:4a, while the details are fleshed out in 2:4b-25.
In Matt 4:18-22, Jesus went down by the sea and found Andrew and Peter and said to them Follow me. They then in turn followed Him. In John 1:35-42, Andrew left Jesus to go and find Peter and bring Him to Jesus. So which is it? Did Jesus find Peter or wa In John 1:35-42, four men temporarily followed Jesus: James, an unnamed disciple (likely John himself), Simon, and Andrew. Johns account records a preliminary contact these men had with Jesus. At this time, Jesus did not call these men to formal discipleship. This came later as recorded in each of the three Synoptic Gospels (cf. Matt 4:18-22; 9:9; Mark 1:16-20; 2:13-14; Luke 5:1-11, 27-28). So the first contact that Peter had with Jesus came as a result of Andrews introduction (John 1:41-42). The second formal contact occurred when Jesus intentionally sought Peter out and called him to a life and ministry of discipleship (Matt 4:18-22). Is physical healing guaranteed in the atonement (Isa 53:3-5)? No. First of all, while ultimate physical healing is in the atonement (a healing we will enjoy in our resurrection bodies), healing of our bodies while in the mortal state (prior to our death and resurrection) is not guaranteed in the atonement.
Second, it is important to note that the Hebrew word for healing (napha) can refer not just to physical healing but to spiritual healing. The context of Isa 53:4 indicates that spiritual healing is in view. In 53:5, we are clearly told, "He was pierced through for our transgressions, He was crushed for our iniquities; the chastening for our well-being fell upon Him, and by His scourging we are healed." Because "transgressions" and "iniquities" set the context, spiritual healing from the misery of man's sin is in view.
Third, there are numerous verses in Scripture, which substantiate the view that physical healing in mortal life is not guaranteed in the atonement and that it is not always God's will to heal. The apostle Paul couldn't heal Timothy's stomach problem (1 Tim 5:23) nor could he heal Trophimus at Miletus (2 Tim 4:20) or Epaphroditus (Phil 3:25-27). Paul spoke of "a bodily illness" he had (Gal 4:13-15). He also suffered a "thorn in the flesh" which God allowed him to retain (2 Cor 12:7-9). God certainly allowed Job to go through a time of physical suffering (Job 1-2). In none of these cases is it stated that the sickness was caused by sin or unbelief. Nor did Paul or any of the others act as if they thought their healing was guaranteed in the atonement. They accepted their situations and trusted in God's grace for sustenance. It is noteworthy that on one occasion Jesus indicated that sickness could be for the glory of God (John 11:4).
Finally, there are numerous verses in Scripture, which reveal that our physical bodies are continuously running down, and suffering various ailments. Our present bodies are said to be perishable and weak (1 Cor 15:42-44). Paul said, "our outer man is decaying" (2 Cor 4:16). Death and disease will be a part of the human condition until that time when we receive resurrection bodies that are immune to such frailties (1 Cor 15:51-55).
Having said this, I do believe that we should pray for healing. I'm just saying that after we've asked for healing, we need to submit to God's sovereign will. He may have a purpose in allowing our illness. Hell What will hell be like? As with heaven, the Bible gives us only general descriptions of what hell will be like. Although some people have questioned the literalness of a physical hell, filled with fire and smoke, we must remember that unbelievers will be resurrected with some sort of body that can endure physical torment. The essence of hell is eternal separation from God; even so, its inhabitants will endure varying degrees of physical suffering (Matt 11:20-24).
Some people want to believe that Jesus is so loving and merciful that He would never send anyone to a place like hell. But when Jesus taught, He spoke more about hell than He did about heaven. Whereas the Old Testament had revealed very little about the eternal condition of those who reject God, Christ described hell as:
Are there degrees of punishment in hell? It certainly appears so. Even a casual reading of Revelation 20:11-15 suggests that unbelievers will be judged according to their deeds (20:12-13). Jesus declares that those who have received greater opportunities for belief will suffer more severe condemnation (see Matt 10:15; 11:20-24; Luke 12:47-48). Would it not be hard to believe that the righteous Judge of the earth (see Gen 18:25) would pronounce the same sentence of judgment upon the most despicable villain of human history, as upon the seemingly moral pagan?
Will there literally be a burning fire in hell? The term fire is often used in connection with the punishment of the lost. In Revelation 20, the expression lake of fire occurs three times to denote the final destiny of Gods enemies. Fire is also associated with hell because of the Greek word gehenna, the term most often employed to denote the place where the lost will go after death and judgment. It occurs 11 times in the Gospels and once in the rest of the New Testament (Jas 3:6). The word itself referred to the valley of Hinnom, just south of Jerusalem. It was here that the Israelites under Ahaz and Manasseh (2 Chron 28:3; 33:6) placed children on a fiery altar dedicated to the god Molech. The specific place where this was done was called Tophet (literally fire place). There is a strong tradition that the valley became a city dump where refuse and the bodies of criminals were burned. The terrible reputation of this valley plus its association with fire and judgment made it an apt symbol for the place of final punishment for the wicked.
So should we portray hell as a literal furnace of fire where all the lost will scream in pain throughout all eternity? The church fathers, Luther, Calvin, all the classical theologians, and present-day evangelical leaders like Francis Schaeffer and J. I. Packer say an emphatic no. They point out that God will lightly punish those who knew very little about His expectations (Luke 12:48). A hell in which all burn in a literal fire does not allow for significant degrees of punishment.
Its also important to remember that the Bible often uses fire as a symbol. In 1 Corinthians 3:12-15, our works (or teaching) are portrayed as wood, hay, straw that will be consumed by the fire of judgment or as gold, silver, precious stones that will endure the fire. In James 3:5,6, the tongue is a fire, causes fire, and is itself set on fire by hell. Hebrews 12:29 declares that our God is a consuming fire. Jude 23 speaks of people who have been doctrinally misled and are in need of being snatched from the fire. In all of these references, the fire is symbolic.
The Bible presents a literal hell as the place of eternal punishment for all who die in unbelief or rebellion. Unscriptural and repulsive overstatements about hell have turned some people away from the Gospel. Such excesses have also caused some true believers to ignore the biblical teaching about hell or to develop false doctrines like universalism. But a sensitive and accurate treatment of this truth can be used by God to strengthen Christians and to awaken sinners to their need of Christ.
Will there literally be a burning fire in hell? The fact of the matter is that if this is just symbolic language, its bad enough for me, and certainly the reality will be worse than the symbol. If youve ever been badly burned, you never forget it. And if the Lord is simply using symbolic language, how much more terrible must the reality be?
Holy Spirit What is the baptism of the Holy Spirit? Seven New Testament passages speak of baptism of/in/with/by the Holy Spirit. The varying prepositions reflect the fact that the Spirit is both the agent and sphere of this baptism. Six of these passages refer to John the Baptists teaching, contrasting his baptism in water with Jesus future baptism in the Holy Spirit. The seventh is 1 Corinthians 12:13 which refers to the initiation of all the Corinthian Christians into the church.
In Matthew 3:11 and Luke 3:16, John predicts that the Messiah who will come after him will baptize with the Holy Spirit and fire. This prophetic expression refers to the Holy Spirits work, which purifies believers and condemns unbelievers. This will occur on the day of Pentecost and will culminate at the final judgment. Mark 1:8 and John 1:33 are parallel passages, but mention only the baptism of the Holy Spirit.
In Acts 1:5, as Jesus prepares to ascend into heaven, He refers back to Johns words and predicts their fulfillment within a few days. In just a little over a week, the disciples celebrate Pentecost and receive the outpouring of the Holy Spirit in fulfillment of the prophecy of Joel 2:2832 (cf. Acts 2:1721). Again in Acts 11:16, Peter refers to Johns baptism. In neither place are we told that the baptism of the Spirit is something we should seek, after salvation.
It is clear that all six of these references to the baptism of the Holy Spirit have Pentecost-like experiences primarily in view. However, in 1 Corinthians 12:13, Paul writes, For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body, whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free, and we were all made to drink of one Spirit. The words translated we were all baptized speak of an action that took place in one instant of time. The baptism of the Spirit takes place at the moment of salvation, is not repeated, and is not to be sought after salvation. The baptism of the Holy Spirit, therefore, is the placing of the believer into the body of Christ by the Holy Spirit at the moment of salvation. It is descriptive of our initiation into the body of Christ (i.e., the universal church).
Please note that there is no mention of a two-stage experience. Paul states that the entire church had been baptized in the Spirit, including the large number of carnal Christians Paul elsewhere rebukes (1 Cor 3:14). This clearly indicates that Spirit-baptism cannot guarantee a certain level of Christian maturity or holiness. And if no one spiritual gift was held by all Corinthian believers (1 Cor 12:2930), then neither may Spirit-baptism be uniformly equated with the gift of tongues.
The 1 Corinthians passage should be our defining text. The reason for this is that we, like the Corinthians, are a part of the church age. The other six instances of the baptism of the Holy Spirit are transitional in nature. By that we mean the disciples were transitioning from the old covenant into the new covenant. Therefore, we must be careful NOT to develop our doctrine from transitional accounts. For example, we must ask the question: Is the book of Acts descriptive or prescriptive? We opt for the former. Luke is recounting the story of the early church. Not everything in this account should be directly transferred to every local church. However, Paul wrote 1 Corinthians during the church age and the church at Corinth was a local church like many churches today.
It is important to note that Pentecost was not the disciples first experience of the Holy Spirit (John 14:17; 20:22), but that does not demand the generalization that the baptism of the Spirit is a second blessing (i.e. a deeper experience of the Spirit subsequent to conversion). Pentecost was a second blessing for the disciples because they were followers of Jesus, both before and after His death. But there is no indication that Cornelius and his friends underwent any second experience of the Spirit. Their Spirit-baptism was simultaneous with their conversion to Christ (Acts 10:44-48). This is the experience of the believer today.
Yet, there are three transitional cases recorded in the book of Acts that must be considered. They took place with three different groups: the Samaritan believers, whose religion and ancestry were part Jewish (Acts 8:14-25); the Gentile family of Cornelius (10:44-48); and twelve people who had believed in Christ and received Johns baptism but knew nothing about what had happened at Pentecost (19:1-7).
In the case of the Samaritans, though they had been baptized in water (Acts 8:12), the gift of the Holy Spirit was delayed until Peter and John came and laid their hands on them. Normally the Spirit is given at the moment of faith (see Acts 10:44; 19:2; Eph. 1:13). Yet, in this instance, it was imperative that the Samaritans be identified with the apostles and the Jerusalem church so that there would be no rival Samaritan Christian church because of the long-standing rivalry that had existed between the Jews and the Samaritans. Without this delay and the coming of the apostles there would have been an immediate rift or division in the early church. The delay of the baptism of the Spirit (which joins us into union with Christ making us one people [1 Cor 12:12-13]), until the coming of the apostles, clearly demonstrated their oneness (see Eph 4:1f).
We must recognize that these signs were given during the transition from the Jewish beginnings of the church to the full inclusion of the Gentiles. When the transition was over, visible signs no longer accompanied the baptism of the Holy Spirit. By giving visible signs in these three instances, the Holy Spirit confirmed the fact that Jesus Christ was building His church. When a person trusts Christ today, he is placed into the church, the body of Christ, at the moment of salvation.
Is this to say that after conversion, there is no extra measure of the Spirits power in the life of a believer? Absolutely not! Luke employs the expression, the filling of the Holy Spirit, to refer to occasions when bold proclamation of the Gospel quickly follows (e.g., Acts 2:4; 4:8, 31; 13:9). The filling of the Holy Spirit is the only conditional benefit of the Holy Spirit (see Eph 5:18). The Spirits work of indwelling, sealing, and baptizing all take place at conversion. But filling is an ongoing power that God provides. However, to be continually filled demands that we abide in Christ, confess our sin, and pray that the Lord would empower us!
Summary: The Baptism of the Holy Spirit is that act whereby God brings the believer into the body of Christ. It occurs the moment a person believes in Jesus Christ. It is also unique to the church age. Passages like John 7:37f; 1 Corinthians 12:13; Ephesians 1:13-14; and Colossians 2:11-13, demonstrate that the giving of the Spirit is based upon personal faith in Christ. If we want to use biblical terminology accurately, then we must differentiate between the baptism of the Spirit and the filling of the Spirit.
In eternity we always hear about God the Father and Jesus, but what about the Holy Spirit? I know of His work regarding people on this earth, but what about in the future? I don't recall ever hearing/reading of the Trinity beyond this earth. The Scriptures do not provide explicit details on the role of the Trinity and Holy Spirit in the eternal realm; however, we can be confident that they will continue to function.
One of the dominant themes of Scripture is expressed by Peter: fix your hope completely on the grace to be brought to you at the revelation of Jesus Christ (1 Pet 1:13b; cf. Rom 8:18, 24; 2 Cor 4:16-18). Indeed, that is when a Christian really begins to live. This has implications for the Holy Spirits role in eternity. Consider the following verses:
What is the unpardonable sin? The sin against the Holy Spirit was a first-century sin in which the Jewish religious leaders attributed Christ's miracles to the power of Satan.
In Matt 12:31-32 Jesus said, "Therefore I say to you, any sin and blasphemy [deviant irreverence] shall be forgiven people, but blasphemy against the Spirit shall not be forgiven. Whoever speaks a word against the Son of Man, it shall be forgiven him; but whoever speaks against the Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him, either in this age or in the age to come." Jesus made this statement after revealing His messianic credentials through His words and works. After He taught the Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5-7), the people recognized that He had an authority greater than the religious leaders (Matt 7:28-29). Then His miracles followed. He healed the lepers, the sick, the blind; He stilled the storm; He cast out demons. All those miracles proved Messiah was in their midst (Isa 35:5-6). But as the leaders investigated, they concluded, "This man casts out demons only by Beelzebul the ruler of the demons" (Matt 12:24). They were acknowledging that Jesus performed miracles but that He did it by the power of Satan.
Mark explains that blasphemy against the Holy Spirit is unforgivable "because they were saying, 'He has an unclean spirit'" (Mark 3:30). God said, "Behold, my servant whom I have chosen, My Beloved with whom My soul is well pleased, I will put my Spirit upon Him, and he will proclaim justice to the Gentiles" (Matt 12:18). But the religious leaders said that one who taught and performed miracles by the power and Holy Spirit did His miracles by the power of Satan! That is the blasphemy of the Holy Spirit. It was both a personal and a national sin. With that statement Israel rejected her Messiah and was destined to suffer the consequences (Matt 23:37-39).
To commit the sin against the Holy Spirit today would demand the physical presence of Jesus, performing His miracles and being rejected by His onlookers. The unpardonable sin is not the same as unbelief. It is a sin that can never be forgiven. Many people who initially reject the gospel later come to faith in Christ. That would not be possible were unbelief the sin against the Spirit. However, while there is no unpardonable sin, there is an unpardonable state -- the state of unbelief. There is no pardon for a person who dies in unbelief. The Pharisees as a whole never sought forgiveness and never believed that Jesus was who He claimed to be. Therefore, they died in their sins. Please do not be guilty of this grievous error. Jesus Himself said, "Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for unless you believe that I am He, you will die in your sins" (John 8:24). Believe in Christ today! Christian Living How do you motivate a Christian who says that he is not worthy to share the Gospel? Most Christians feel unworthy to share Christ with others. Even if a believer is especially godly he or she should never feel adequate or qualified to share the gospel. Fortunately, the good news of the gospel is a free gift (Eph 2:8-9) and is not dependent upon our performance (Titus 3:5). Consequently, any believer can and should share the gospel with family, friends, neighbors, coworkers, and acquaintances. God commands every Christian to share the gospel (Matt 28:19-20; Mark 16:15; Luke 24:47-49; Acts 1:8). These passages are relevant not only to the first-century apostles but also to all 21st century disciples. A wonderful example of a faithful witness is the immoral woman in John 4:7-30. After Jesus shared eternal life with her, she "left her waterpot, and went into the city and said to the men, 'Come, see a man who told me all the things that I have done; this is not the Christ, is it?'" (4:28-29). Later in the chapter, John records, "From that city many of the Samaritans believed in Him because of the word of the woman who testified, 'He told me all the things that I have done'" (4:39). This woman is a wonderful example of an unworthy candidate to share the gospel that was powerfully used by Christ. Although the Holy Spirit can work in and through us in spite of ourselves, it is imperative that we exhort Christians to be "salt and light" (Matt 5:13-16) and "walk in a worthy manner" (Eph 4:1). Generally, those Christians who act most like Christ are the most effective ambassadors of the gospel (2 Cor 5:20). In 1 Cor 10:1-5, is there is a transition between chapters 8 and 9 being free in Christ and having rights in Him, to 10:6 where Paul begins to warn us to be careful not to do things which are sinful and cause us to fall? There are three divisions in the book of First Corinthians: (1) Answer to Chloe's report of divisions (chapters 1-4); (2) answer to report of fornication (chapters 5-6); and (3) answer to letter of questions (chapters 7-16). Within the third division, 1 Cor 8:1-11:1 is related to the problem of meat offered to idols. In this section, Paul illustrates from his own life the twin principles of Christian liberty and the law of love, and he concludes that believers must sometimes limit their liberty for the sake of weaker believers (cf. Rom 14).
The breakdown of this section is as follows:
How can I take sermon notes? This question came from an eight-year old girl. Thank you for your note this past Sunday. I was touched by your desire to take sermon notes. I hope the following suggestions may be of help to you. If any of these items don't make sense to you, feel free to ask your parents or me.
How to Take Sermon Notes
1) Listen for main points. I will usually repeat each main point. There are normally two, three, or four main points. If you listen carefully you will hear me repeat these points throughout the sermon. The main points are typically commands. For example, Prepare to hear Gods Word and Determine to Obey Gods Word.
2) Underline or circle key words and write out their meanings. Don't be afraid to write in your Bible. If you hear me make a big deal about a word, circle that word in your Bible. Then write down the meaning of that word in your Bible. For example, I might say, In James 1:21, the word receive is a command. This requires an active decision on our part. The word is often used in the New Testament of Christian hospitality. The word receive can be also mean welcome. Therefore, we are to welcome Gods Word into our lives. We are to make Gods Word at home in our hearts.
3) Write down the verses of the passage and make notes. After a story or a few opening thoughts, I will give the passage that I will be preaching. When I do, write down each individual verse. If I am preaching James 1:21-25, you should write down five verses (21, 22, 23, 24, 25). Beside each verse, you can write down those truths that stand out to you.
4) Write down any parallel cross-references. I will often refer to a Bible verse outside of the passage that I am preaching. For example, I might say, In Hebrews 4:12, we read that the Word of God is living and active and sharper than any two-edged sword. Verses like this that I refer to are very important and will help you better understand the passage that I am preaching through. Write these verses down and read them later at home.
5) Write down questions that are raised. Write down the questions that you hear me ask. Be sure to write the questions so they apply to you. For example, hows your spiritual hearing? You should change this question to hows MY spiritual hearing? The next step is to ask yourself that question during the week.
6) Write down applications and challenges. In every sermon, I will apply the Bible verses to our lives. When I do, write the applications down. This is very important! For example, if I challenge you to read your Bible ten minutes a day, you should write that down and set a goal to read your Bible.
Why is dressing modestly important for today? Is dressing modestly just an outdated cultural standard from the 50s? Turn on the television, go to the movies, or flip through the pages of just about any magazine and it appears that our society has lost the value of modesty. People dress in clothing and styles that are designed to reveal and to bring considerable attention to their bodies.
To suggest that we need to dress with modesty is often looked on as restraining or limiting our freedom. This argument, however, overlooks the personal rewards of living and dressing discretely.
Modesty in dress sends a message of purity and honor. It puts an emphasis on and values the inner person, over outward attractiveness. It says that a person is worth far more than what meets the eye. There is a depth of character that rises above beauty or charm. When we dress modestly, we are saying that we possess inner qualities for which we should gain appropriate attention and value from others.
When we choose to dress in a provocative way, we send a message that we believe our value comes from our looks rather than from our heart. Skimpy clothing says that our worth is in our sex appeal. This is a weak foundation to build self-esteem or self-worth. What happens when we age and the wrinkles start showing? Where will the sense of value and worth come from then? For various reasons (e.g. past sexual abuse, low self-esteem) some believe that their worth comes from how good they look and how many heads they can turn. But that can leave a person feeling empty and alone. All of us, ultimately, want to be pursued and loved deeply because of our hearts and minds, not for our bodies. Dressing in a showy fashion puts the focus on our outward appearance, not on our heart.
The Bible places a high priority on modesty. In 1 Timothy 2:9, for example, it teaches that Christian women are to dress modestly. They are to focus on their inner attractiveness rather than being overly concerned about outward appearance. This does not mean that they shouldnt take care of themselves, look their best, and enjoy their beauty. It means that they should not use their God-given beauty for selfish, self-centered reasons, like competing with other women or gaining the lustful attention of men.
Modesty demonstrates self-control, which is a fruit of the Holy Spirit (Gal 5:22-23). Those who understand the principles of modesty acknowledge human sexuality and the tendency toward self-promotion. But they control those inclinations by choosing to express themselves with humility. Immodesty, on the other hand, can create a false sense of security and self-esteem because it puts too much emphasis on outward appearance.
It can be difficult to maintain modesty when we think of it in terms of it being limiting. But if we consider the personal rewards of modestyself-respect, honor, and self-controlthe price is too high not to be modest.
My child has started asking why he has to go to church if daddy doesnt. Do you have any answers that I can give him, without saying that his dad is wrong? The question you've posed is one of the most difficult questions I've ever been asked. What makes it so challenging to answer is that your husband is wrong.
It is absolutely essential that a believer attend church. The New Testament knows nothing of an unchurched Christian. Moreover, there are many "one another" commands in the New Testament that require every believer to assimilate into a local body of believers (e.g., Rom 12:10; Gal 6:2; Eph 4:25; Col 3:16; 1 Thess 5:11; Heb 3:13; Jas 5:16; 1 Pet 4:8-10). Not to mention, Hebrews 10:23-25 says, Let us hold fast the confession of our hope without wavering, for He who promised is faithful; and let us consider how to stimulate one another to love and good deeds, not forsaking our own assembling together, as is the habit of some, but encouraging one another; and all the more as you see the day drawing near.
You may be well versed in the above arguments so let me just encourage you with these ideas:
(1) Pray Ephesians 1:17-18a for your son. May the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, give ______ a spirit of wisdom and of revelation in the knowledge of Him. May the eyes of his heart be enlightened. God loves to answer prayers prayed according to His Word. No words that you can share with your son will help him to understand his dad's inactive status. But if God gives him a sensitivity to His Spirit and spiritual eyes to see, he will understand.
(2) Pray Luke 2:52 for your son: May ________ keep increasing in wisdom and stature and in favor with God and men.
(3) Pray Psalm 78:5-8 for your son: May _________ put his confidence in God, not forget the works of God, keep His commandments, and not be like their fathers, a stubborn and rebellious generation, a generation that did not prepare its heart and whose spirit was not faithful to God.
(4) Carry out Deuteronomy 6:6-7: These words, which I am commanding you today, shall be on your heart. You shall teach them diligently to your sons and shall talk of them when you sit in your house and when you walk by the way and when you lie down and when you rise up.
(5) Continue to model the following passages:
I am being considered for a new job but I have to pass a test. If God intends for me to have this job but I fail the test, can I thwart His purposes? I strongly believe in the providence of God (Rom 8:28). In the situation you have described, I am convinced that God will sovereignly open and close vocational doors for His good purposes and for yours. If He wants you to work for this particular employer, it is as good as done. He will graciously permit you to do well on the test. If He does not want you to work there, He may close the doors through various circumstances (e.g., one possibility being you may not pass this test).
Like you, I do believe that you must study to the best of your God-given ability for this test (Col 3:17, 23). God does not usually work in a vacuum. This is the mystery of divine sovereignty and human responsibility. I would simply encourage you to do the very best that you can and trust God with the results. I would also encourage you to meditate Matthew 6:25-34 and 1 Peter 5:5b-7.
As I close, I will share one quick example: I know a man who applied for a couple of jobs that he was a shoe-in to be hired for. Surprisingly, he didn't pass the examination tests. As a result, he sensed God leading him to Multnomah. The Lord miraculously supplied a large sum of money and he is going to be moving to Portland! God had something better for him.
This overarching principle will be true for you as well: If this is a job that God desires you to have, He will give you the necessary competence, retention, and coolness to pass the test. If He has a better job for you down the road, He may close this door. Either way we can bless God. This is one of the great benefits of a proper belief in God's providence.
What separates a Christian leader that falls into sin from someone that perseveres? First, everything depends on one's view of God. A.W. Tozer wrote, "The most important thing about a person is what they think about God." I agree with this. Everyone wants to believe in a God of love and grace but how many people believe God is also a God of holiness, righteousness, and wrath? How many books have been written on the fear of God? Very few because most publishers believe they would not sell. (They are no doubt correct.) Yet, the men that walk with Christ, persevere in the faith, and are not duped by false doctrine are men that fear God more than they fear men (Prov 1:7; Matt 10:28).
Second, many great men have succumbed to sin and false teaching because they have not been filled with the Holy Spirit (Eph 5:18). They may have been regenerated, indwelt, baptized, and sealed, but they fail to be daily filled with the HS. Ironically, in conservative circles, the Holy Spirit is the neglected member of the Godhead, thus we know little about Him and lack the power He provides. In charismatic circles, the Spirit is the main attraction, yet Jesus is clear that the role of the Holy Spirit is to glorify Him (John 16:13-14). Therefore, when we draw attention to the HS, we are functioning in an unbiblical manner. BTW, filling and abiding (John 15:5; 1 John 2:28) are quite similar. I don't believe that you can have one without the other.
Third, many knowledgeable men have become "spiritual blowfish" (1 Cor 8:1). They may be walking-talking concordances but they are full of pride. Obviously, God hates pride (Prov 6:16-17a) and will remove His hand from men that want to share His glory (Isa 42:8). Paul says it best, "But God has chosen the foolish things of the world to shame the wise, and God has chosen the weak things of the world to shame the things which are strong, and the base things of the world and the despised God has chosen, the things that are not, so that He may nullify the things that are, 29 so that no man may boast before God" (1 Cor 1:27-29).
Finally, most men that are "going for it" with God are men that are accountable to other men (Prov 27:17). Without proper accountability, we're all capable of falling into sin.
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